Which of the following types of medical control involves
communicating with the physician and then providing patient care?
A.
online.
B.
off-line.
C.
protocol.
D.
standing orders.
7.
The person who is responsible for authorizing EMT
personnel to perform emergency medical care is the:
A.
nurse educator.
B.
medical director.
C.
EMS program chief.
D.
CQI nurse.
9.
An EMT who has extensive training in advanced life
support assessments and treatments is called:
A.
a first responder.
B.
an EMT-B (Basic).
C.
an EMT-I (Intermediate).
D.
an EMT-P (Paramedic).
10.
A person who has training in basic emergency care skills,
including automatic external defibrillation, use of airway adjuncts, and
assisting with certain medications is called:
A.
a first responder.
B.
an EMT-B (Basic).
C.
an EMT-I (Intermediate).
D.
an EMT-P (Paramedic).
11.
EMS as we know it today began with the influence of what
document?
A.
the 1959 United States Funeral Directors Guidelines.
B.
the 1966 "Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease
of Modern Society".
C.
the 1973 "Emergency Medical Services Act".
D.
the 1971 U.S. Department of Transportation "National Standard
Curriculum".
12.
Continuing Education in EMS serves to:
A.
maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.
B.
enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training.
C.
prove research and statistical findings in field care.
D.
provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.
13.
What is one of the most difficult emotional problems that
may affect an EMT?
A.
grief
B.
denial
C.
euphoria
D.
acceptance
16.
Which of the following is NOT a common hazard in a fire?
A.
smoke.
B.
toxic gases.
C.
carbon dioxide deficiency.
D.
high ambient temperatures.
19.
An elderly woman has died at home. After you advise the
family of the death, a family member begins to complain about the long
response time. You should:
A.
provide gentle caring support.
B.
be assertive.
C.
be defensive.
D.
call for law enforcement assistance.
22.
Critical incident stress debriefing is a program used to:
A.
reduce anxiety from stressful job-related incidents.
B.
evaluate standard operating procedures during critical incidents.
C.
debrief press and media on details of a significant incident.
D.
investigate complaints during a major incident.
23.
You arrive at the scene of an automobile crash where a
car has been struck by a semi-trailer truck. The truck is displaying a
placard, and there appears to be a haze around the rear doors of the
trailer. Which of the following steps is NOT considered proper procedure?
A.
Clear the area and secure the scene.
B.
Contact law enforcement for assistance.
C.
Obtain MSDS sheets from the driver of the truck.
D.
Do nothing and continue the normal assessment process.
24.
You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation.
As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the
statement "He has a gun!" At this point, you should:
A.
continue into the apartment and apprehend the gunman.
B.
continue into the apartment as if nothing had happened.
C.
stay where you are and ask the person to drop the weapon.
D.
do not approach further and call for law enforcement assistance.
26.
The regular use of protective barriers and practices for
avoiding exposure to communicable diseases is called:
A.
infection control.
B.
infection prevention.
C.
significant exposure.
D.
body substance isolation (BSI).
27.
Which of the following is considered to be personal
protective equipment?
A.
gloves and eye protection.
B.
preventive antibiotics.
C.
reusable latex gloves.
D.
HEPA respirator for the patient.
28.
When you suction an airway, the minimum body substance
isolation (BSI) precautions you should take are:
A.
hand washing and a mask.
B.
gloves and eye protection.
C.
eye protection, gloves, and a HEPA respirator.
D.
hand washing, gloves, and a mask.
30.
What is the single most important thing you should do
routinely to help prevent transmission of infectious disease?
A.
Undergo a yearly health examination.
B.
Maintain up-to-date immunizations.
C.
Undergo pre-employment and follow-up tuberculosis (PPD) tests.
D.
Wash your hands before and immediately after contacting each
patient.
31.
While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance
crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should:
A.
immerse your wound in a hypochlorine solution.
B.
immediately report the incident to your supervisor.
C.
ignore the wound, since you have been cut many times before while
on duty.
D.
wash the wound with an EPA-recommended germicidal/viricidal
cleaning agent.
32.
You have been dispatched to a nearby bar, where a man has
been stabbed. As you pull up in front of the bar, a man in an apron yells
that he is the bartender and that "the crazy guy inside has a knife." You
should:
A.
enter the bar and begin caring for the patient who was stabbed.
B.
enter the bar and secure the scene by grabbing the knife from the
man.
C.
remain outside the bar until the scene is secured by law
enforcement personnel.
D.
be prepared to use soft restraints on the man with the knife.
34.
The preferred infection control concept for Fire and EMS
personnel is:
A.
preventive antibiotics.
B.
routine immunizations.
C.
a semiannual physical exam.
D.
following body substance isolation (BSI) precautions.
36.
A response such as anger or denial by a family member is
a common reaction to:
A.
pain.
B.
death.
C.
paranoia.
D.
depression.
37.
While trying to make a family member feel better after a
loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. This may be viewed
by the family as:
A.
an attempt to diminish their grief.
B.
supportive and caring.
C.
coaching them through the grieving process.
D.
a show of respect for the person who died.
38.
When a person has experienced a psychologically
distressing event where they recall the event over and over again, they
may be suffering from:
A.
manic depression disease.
B.
post-traumatic stress disorder.
C.
critical incident anxiety.
D.
stress syndrome.
41.
Which of the following is true regarding sexual
harassment?
A.
It is always an unwelcome sexual advance.
B.
The intent of the harasser must be hostile.
C.
The perceptions of the victim are the basis of the complaint.
D.
More than one coworker must be involved.
43.
The exposure of a communicable disease from one person to
another by physical touching describes which mechanism of transmission?
A.
direct contact.
B.
airborne.
C.
vector-borne.
D.
fluid splash.
45.
Which of the following body fluids is considered to be of
NO risk for the transmission of hepatitis B?
A.
blood.
B.
semen.
C.
vomitus.
D.
vaginal secretions.
46.
Aside from wearing protective equipment, which of the
following methods is simple and effective in protecting yourself from
communicable diseases?
A.
washing your hands.
B.
avoiding patient contact.
C.
touching a patient's clothes only.
D.
standing at least 3 feet from a patient while talking.
47.
Which of the following types of gloves should be worn for
cleaning and disinfecting an ambulance after a call?
A.
latex.
B.
vinyl.
C.
leather.
D.
heavy-duty utility.
48.
Which of the following communicable diseases is NOT
considered to be an occupational risk to EMS personnel?
A.
human immunodeficiency virus.
B.
hepatitis B.
C.
gonorrhea.
D.
tuberculosis.
49.
Which of the following body organs is most affected by
the hepatitis B and C viruses?
A.
brain.
B.
liver.
C.
heart.
D.
spleen.
50.
Which of the following communicable diseases is spread by
airborne transmission?
A.
HIV.
B.
hepatitis B.
C.
hepatitis C.
D.
tuberculosis.
51.
Which of the following body fluids does NOT transmit the
HIV virus?
A.
saliva.
B.
blood.
C.
semen.
D.
vaginal secretions.
52.
You have been called to a pay-per-day boarding house for
a man who is sick. As you enter, you find 20 to 30 men lying around on
mattresses in a small room. The man who is sick states that he has been
coughing up blood. Further history from the patient includes continuous
coughing, night sweats, and swollen glands. To prevent the transmission of
any possible communicable diseases the patient might have, you and your
partner should put on:
A.
surgical masks, and place a HEPA respirator on the patient.
B.
gloves only.
C.
gloves and HEPA respirators, and place a surgical mask on the
patient.
D.
gloves and surgical masks, and place a HEPA respirator on the
patient.
53.
Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by
direct contact with respiratory secretions?
A.
HIV.
B.
syphilis.
C.
hepatitis B.
D.
meningitis.
54.
Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of
hepatitis B and C?
A.
fever.
B.
weakness.
C.
nausea and vomiting.
D.
left upper quadrant pain.
55.
When dealing with patients who are under a great deal of
stress due to their injury/illness, the EMT should:
A.
use a professional tone of voice and show courtesy during the
assessment.
B.
discourage them from expressing fears until a counselor is
available.
C.
explain to them that "everything will be all right" to calm them
down.
D.
restrain them if they are extremely emotional and will not calm
down.
57.
Which of the following defines your scope of practice
within your local response area?
A.
protocols.
B.
national certification.
C.
patient's injury or illness.
D.
American Heart Association guidelines.
58.
The parameters and limitations of a given medical
provider
A.
EMT competency.
B.
the scope of practice.
C.
Good Samaritan laws.
D.
personal knowledge to provide care.
59.
You are at the home of a terminally ill patient who is
showing signs of impending death. You have to prepare the patient for
transport to the hospital, but a family member states that the patient
wants to die at home. What should you do?
A.
Disregard the family's request and transport the patient.
B.
Have the family sign a treatment waiver before you leave.
C.
Call for law enforcement assistance to help transport the patient.
D.
Call medical control, inform them of the situation, and ask for
directions.
61.
You respond to the home of a 75-year-old man who is
unconscious and appears to be dying. The family states that the patient is
terminally ill and wishes no resuscitative measures be taken to save his
life. No written orders are available, but the family states that the
doctor has written them. How should you handle this situation?
A.
Immediately contact medical control for advice.
B.
Inform the medical examiner and return to service.
C.
Ignore the family's statement, start CPR, and transport the
patient.
D.
Give the family time to locate the written order and then decide
on further actions.
62.
A patient has granted you permission to start treatment.
This is called:
A.
expressed consent.
B.
duty to act.
C.
standard of care.
D.
Res Ipsa Loquitur.
63.
For informed consent to be valid, it must be:
A.
notarized.
B.
administered by law enforcement.
C.
given by a mentally competent adult.
D.
written and witnessed by a family member.
64.
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment
when a patient is unconscious?
A.
mature.
B.
implied.
C.
informed.
D.
expressed.
66.
When you arrive at an accident scene, you find that a
child has been seriously injured. No parent or guardian is around. What
type of consent is involved in treating a minor in an emergency?
A.
actual.
B.
implied.
C.
expressed.
D.
informed.
67.
In most states, a minor can be treated as an adult for
the purpose of consenting to medical treatment if the minor is:
A.
pregnant.
B.
intoxicated.
C.
15 years old.
D.
able to drive.
68.
Which of the following patients has the right to refuse
treatment?
A.
minor.
B.
unconscious patient.
C.
mentally competent adult.
D.
mentally incompetent adult.
69.
Your best protection against lawsuits in refusal of care
cases is to:
A.
notify medical control.
B.
notify law enforcement.
C.
make a verbal confirmation to the patient.
D.
write a well-documented prehospital care report.
71.
Failing to perform an important or necessary technique,
or performing the technique in a careless or unskilled manner, violates
the standard of care. This is called:
A.
consent.
B.
immunity.
C.
negligence.
D.
abandonment.
72.
Terminating the provider/patient relationship without
making certain that equal services are available is called:
A.
tort.
B.
libel.
C.
assault.
D.
abandonment.
73.
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear
immediate bodily harm is called:
A.
tort.
B.
libel.
C.
assault.
D.
abandonment.
74.
Which of the following components are needed to prove
negligence?
A.
duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation.
B.
duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation.
C.
abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation.
D.
breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation.
75.
You do NOT have a legal duty to act when you:
A.
are on duty.
B.
are off duty.
C.
are working for a volunteer service.
D.
have a patient who refuses care.
76.
You are off duty. At which of the following times are you
obligated by law to care for a patient?
A.
You have no obligation.
B.
24 hours a day.
C.
when you become certified.
D.
once you initiate care.
77.
Which of the following information is NOT considered
confidential?
A.
patient history.
B.
treatment rendered.
C.
assessment findings.
D.
location of the emergency.
78.
Which of the following circumstances would require a
written release of confidential information?
A.
communication with medical control about patient care issues.
B.
legally mandated reporting of incidents such as abuse and rape.
C.
a family member wanting to know information about an adult patient.
D.
a family member wanting to know information about a minor for whom
he or she has legal responsibility.
80.
You and your partner are the first to arrive at a
potential crime scene with a patient involved. The scene is safe. Your
first priority is to:
A.
notify medical control.
B.
wait for the police to arrive.
C.
contact dispatch for instructions.
D.
give emergency care to the patient.
81.
Which of the following situations requires you to notify
law enforcement?
A.
abuse case.
B.
burn patient.
C.
cardiac arrest.
D.
accidental drug overdose.
82.
As you move a patient from the state capitol building
into the ambulance, a reporter recognizes the patient as a state senator.
Immediately, the media representatives demand to be informed about the
patient's condition. You should:
A.
tell the press your diagnosis.
B.
deny that the patient is a senator.
C.
advise the press to contact the patient's family.
D.
tell the press that you are unable to comment.
84.
You are treating a man who has a closed head injury as a
result of an assault. The patient becomes verbally abusive and tells you
to "leave him alone." If you stop treating this patient, you will be
guilty of:
A.
battery.
B.
abandonment.
C.
assault.
D.
negligence.
86.
Which of the following situations does NOT require
reporting to the authorities?
A.
transporting a drug addict with a broken ankle.
B.
delivering a baby in the field.
C.
treating a victim of sexual assault.
D.
treating a patient who might be a victim of child abuse.
87.
You think that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken
leg after she is hit by a car. You suspect that the girl might have run
away from home. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she
agrees to treatment. Her agreement would be considered what type of
consent?
A.
expressed.
B.
informed.
C.
implied.
D.
prenatal.
89.
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of an
assault should include:
A.
moving the weapon out of the patient's sight.
B.
placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.
C.
cutting the patient's clothing in areas that were not damaged
during the assault.
D.
making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later.
90.
How is the patient care information in the written report
viewed in most legal circles?
A.
It has no legal standing.
B.
It is to be taken as gospel.
C.
If was not written down, it was not done.
D.
It cannot be used in proving negligence.
94.
Grounds to legally restrain a patient include:
A.
subjective belief the patient will injure himself.
B.
a history of mental health disease.
C.
previous episodes of attempted suicide.
D.
a closed head injury.
95.
What type of medical direction do standing orders on
protocols describe?
A.
radio.
B.
online.
C.
off-line.
D.
face-to-face.
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