The term "contraindication" is defined as a situation in
which:
A.
a drug should be given.
B.
a drug should not be given.
C.
no drug of any kind should be given.
D.
it does not matter whether a drug is given or not.
4.
Your patient is a 56-year-old man with chest pain.
Medical control orders you to help the patient take a nitroglycerin
tablet. The patient later tells you that he has a headache. This headache
is known as:
A.
a sign.
B.
an action.
C.
a symptom.
D.
a side effect.
7.
Which one of the following drugs would you carry on the
ambulance?
A.
albuterol.
B.
dopamine.
C.
epinephrine.
D.
oral glucose.
8.
Which one of the following medications would you help a
patient take in the prehospital setting?
A.
IV antibiotic.
B.
cough syrup.
C.
prescribed inhale.r
D.
nonprescription antacid.
10.
You should use activated charcoal when a patient:
A.
overdoses on oral medication.
B.
complains of severe dyspnea.
C.
complains of nausea and vomiting.
D.
complains of severe substernal chest pain.
15.
Epinephrine would be used for a patient who:
A.
is hypoglycemic.
B.
is having an allergic reaction.
C.
has substernal chest pain.
D.
has overdosed on 40 aspirin tablets.
19.
The fastest way to deliver a medication into the
bloodstream would be to:
A.
apply it to the surface of the skin.
B.
place it in the rectum.
C.
administer it sublingually.
D.
swallow the medication.
23.
An example of a suspension is:
A.
oral glucose.
B.
activated charcoal.
C.
capsules.
D.
nitroglycerin.
24.
Which of the following medications is NOT inhaled?
A.
oxygen.
B.
epinephrine.
C.
nitro spray.
D.
albuterol.
28.
A 56-year-old man was just administered nitroglycerin.
The proper dose and time of administration have been documented. The EMT
would next:
A.
inform medical control the medication was just given.
B.
reassess vital signs and chief complaint.
C.
administer another dose within 3 minutes if effective.
D.
verify the proper medication was given.
29.
When you relay patient information via a radio,
communications should be:
A.
brief and organized.
B.
coded and scripted.
C.
spoken in a loud voice.
D.
lengthy and complete.
30.
Which of the following types of patient information
should NOT usually be given over the radio?
A.
sex.
B.
age.
C.
name.
D.
weight.
32.
When you make your initial radio contact, you should
NEVER:
A.
speak in a normal tone.
B.
identify the unit number.
C.
identify the care attendant.
D.
knowingly interrupt another transmission.
33.
Which of the following types of patient information
should be relayed first after you identify your unit and name?
A.
age and sex.
B.
present illness.
C.
chief complaint.
D.
primary problem.
35.
When you begin a verbal report, you should state the
patient's age, sex, and:
A.
chief complaint.
B.
any known allergies.
C.
the emergency care given.
D.
past medical history.
40.
When you communicate with a patient, you should:
A.
make and keep eye contact.
B.
promise the patient that everything will be all right.
C.
let the patient think that you wish to pursue a friendship.
D.
make sure the patient knows that you have a schedule to keep.
41.
In what manner should you act and speak with a patient?
A.
passive.
B.
authoritative.
C.
loud and official.
D.
calm and confident.
44.
After you receive patient care orders from medical
control, you should:
A.
consult with the patient.
B.
terminate the transmission.
C.
repeat the orders back word for word.
D.
repeat the orders back in your own words.
46.
What part of the written report contains the AVPU
information?
A.
patient.
B.
hospital.
C.
financial.
D.
administrative.
48.
A patient's refusal must be:
A.
ignored at all costs.
B.
an informed refusal.
C.
reported to the police.
D.
witnessed by a notary to be legal.
49.
Which of the following patients has the right to refuse
medical care, even though the illness or injury could result in death or
permanent disability?
A.
minor patient.
B.
institutionalized patient.
C.
competent adult patient.
D.
mentally incompetent adult.
50.
If your patient refuses to sign a refusal form, you
should:
A.
have the police arrest the patient.
B.
discard the form because it is invalid without a signature.
C.
leave the form with a family member to get it signed later.
D.
document the refusal and have one or more witnesses sign the form.
51.
Which of the following statements regarding your written
report is true?
A.
It is a legal document.
B.
It cannot be used in a court of law.
C.
It must be destroyed after 1 year.
D.
It is used only for billing purposes.
53.
Which of the following incidents does NOT require a
report to be filed with local authorities?
A.
gunshot wounds.
B.
animal bite.
C.
cardiac arrest.
D.
spousal abuse.
60.
A 17-year-old patient has a severely fractured lower leg
with deformity after a fall. In a frightened voice he asks if his leg is
broken. An appropriate response by the EMT would be:
A.
"Everything will be fine, you just don't worry."
B.
"It is hard to tell what is wrong, but just to be safe, don't move
your leg."
C.
"Your leg is broken.. We are going to splint it to make it more
comfortable."
D.
"You have a badly broken leg. It is going to hurt a lot when we
put on the splint."
63.
You arrive at the home where there is a reported medical
emergency. A neighbor tells you that she saw the patient with a gun. What
should you do first?
A.
Approach quietly.
B.
Do a visual inspection.
C.
Call the police before approaching.
D.
Remove your ambulance and call the police.
64.
What should you do first at the scene of an unsafe
incident?
A.
Remove bystanders.
B.
Call for additional help.
C.
Provide safety for the patient.
D.
Take steps to provide for your safety.
65.
Which of the following steps should NOT be taken before
entering an emergency scene?
A.
Examine the patient.
B.
Check for oncoming traffic.
C.
Look for hazardous materials.
D.
Determine whether electrical hazards are present.
66.
There has been an crash involving a compact car and a
passenger van. What should you do first?
A.
Look for spilled fuel.
B.
Check for medic alert tags.
C.
Perform a focused assessment.
D.
Identify the total number of patients.
67.
When is the best time to consider asking for additional
help at an accident scene?
A.
after you have triaged the patients.
B.
after all the patients have been counted.
C.
when you are sure you know what help is needed.
D.
as soon as you have completed the scene size-up.
70.
You are assessing a patient's level of consciousness. The
unconscious patient moans when the hand is pinched. This response
indicates the patient is:
A.
alert.
B.
unresponsive.
C.
responsive to verbal stimuli.
D.
responsive to painful stimuli.
71.
Which manual airway maneuver should be used to open the
airway in an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
A.
any method.
B.
chin-lift with head-tilt.
C.
head-tilt with jaw-thrust.
D.
neutral head position with jaw-thrust.
72.
You have an unconscious patient, and the cause of illness
is unknown. You use the jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway because:
A.
there may be cervical spine injuries.
B.
it is the only way to open an airway.
C.
it will help to prevent the patient from vomiting.
D.
the patient might have damage to the chin, preventing use of a
chin lift.
74.
A pedestrian has been hit by a car and is unconscious.
What is the first step in caring for this patient?
A.
Look for the cause of bleeding.
B.
Attempt to wake the patient by shaking and shouting.
C.
Ventilate the patient without using an airway adjunct.
D.
Control the cervical spine and open the airway with a jaw-thrust
maneuver.
75.
You have been called to the house of an elderly man. Your
initial assessment reveals that the patient is not breathing and has no
pulse. You should:
A.
inform the family that the man has died.
B.
quickly load the patient into your ambulance and then begin CPR.
C.
start chest compressions and recheck to see whether a pulse can be
found.
D.
start CPR and apply an automated external defibrillator (AED).
76.
A teenage girl is suspected of a drug overdose. As you
approach her, you see that she is lying on her back, and you can hear
gurgling respirations. This gurgling is most likely being caused by:
A.
fluid or vomitus in her upper airway.
B.
her tongue blocking her airway.
C.
the drugs she took going into her lungs instead of her stomach.
D.
a complete obstruction of her trachea, preventing air movement to
her lungs.
78.
The term "chief complaint" is best defined as the:
A.
symptom that is bothering the patient the most.
B.
most severe findings after examining the patient.
C.
obvious impression you note, regardless of what the patient says.
D.
statements from family members about how the patient is feeling.
79.
You would know that an adult patient has a clear and
patent airway when:
A.
the patient can speak.
B.
the patient's mouth opens.
C.
the patient's tongue is normal in color.
D.
you hear no sounds during breathing.
80.
Your patient is an unconscious adult with no suspected
trauma. To open the airway, you should:
A.
lift the head above the shoulders.
B.
tilt the head back and lift the chin.
C.
tip the head back and lift the shoulders.
D.
tip the head forward with the chin to the chest.
81.
Consider assisting ventilations when respirations are
less than:
A.
2 or greater than 40 breaths per minute.
B.
6 or greater than 30 breaths per minute.
C.
8 or greater than 24 breaths per minute.
D.
12 or greater than 18 breaths per minute.
82.
What type of external bleeding requires your immediate
attention?
A.
dark red blood draining from the nose.
B.
dark red blood slowly bleeding from a laceration.
C.
bright red blood oozing from a large abrasion.
D.
bright red blood spurting from an artery.
84.
Which of the following is the proper sequence to
initially assess a patient's vital functions?
A.
airway, circulation, breathing.
B.
airway, breathing, circulation.
C.
circulation, breathing, airway.
D.
breathing, airway, circulation.
85.
A 39-year-old man has crashed his car into a tree. He is
conscious and complaining of severe pain in the right anterior chest. He
also has difficulty breathing. After ensuring an adequate airway, you
should next:
A.
give supplemental oxygen.
B.
observe and record his vital signs.
C.
control any obvious external bleeding.
D.
cover any penetrating wounds into the chest cavity.
86.
The normal resting pulse rate for an adult is how many
beats per minute?
A.
15 to 30.
B.
40 to 60.
C.
60 to 100.
D.
100 to 120.
87.
A 30-year-old man has fallen off a ladder. Your initial
assessment of the patient revealed that he was responsive to deep pain
when you pinched his shoulder muscle. After loading him into the
ambulance, you repeat the same pain stimulus, and he does not respond.
What does this reassessment tell you about his level of consciousness?
A.
It is decreasing, meaning that his condition is getting worse.
B.
It has changed, but this does not mean that his condition is
better or worse.
C.
It is the same. Patients do not respond to the same type of
stimulus twice.
D.
His response to pain is different, but his level of consciousness
and condition are the same.
88.
What is the importance of noting the mechanism of injury
(MOI)when you are assessing an accident scene?
A.
It helps you to complete your run sheet.
B.
It reminds you of personal safety before patient safety.
C.
It helps you to identify potential life-threatening injuries.
D.
The police might ask you exactly what happened in the accident.
89.
A rapid trauma assessment is done to:
A.
quickly identify any deformities.
B.
quickly identify and treat all life-threatening injuries.
C.
minimize the time spent on the call so that you can get back into
service.
D.
minimize the amount of pain you may induce by a long assessment.
90.
You are assessing a trauma patient who has fallen from
the top of a 30-foot ladder. He is conscious, alert, and complaining only
of leg and hip pain. Initial cervical spine control has been established
and maintained to this point. How should you assess his c-spine for
injury?
A.
Ask him to move his arms and legs, and if he can do so, allow him
to sit up.
B.
Ask him to try to move his head against resistance to determine
whether there is pain, then palpate for obvious deformities.
C.
Palpate his c-spine for point tenderness, and if there is none,
ask him to move his head to determine whether there is pain.
D.
Palpate his c-spine for point tenderness, have him move his
fingers and toes, and ask him whether he feels any sensations in his
extremities.
91.
You are evaluating a 16-year-old patient who has a
gunshot wound in his right leg. There is an obvious entrance wound into
the skin and muscle. This type of injury is called a:
A.
grazing mark.
B.
blunt injury.
C.
penetrating trauma.
D.
compound wound.
92.
What is paradoxical movement of the chest wall?
A.
a questionable movement of the chest wall.
B.
lack of chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing.
C.
movement of the chest wall that is not understood by modern
medicine.
D.
movement of a portion of the chest wall that is opposite in
direction to the rest of the chest.
99.
During your scene size-up you are evaluating the
mechanism of injury for a person who has fallen. You suspect he has
serious injuries because he has fallen:
A.
from a standing position.
B.
more than two times his height.
C.
approximately 10 feet.
D.
out of the first-story window.
101.
A 42-year-old man is found unresponsive at the bottom of
an 8-foot ladder. It appears he was painting the house. No one else is
around. In your general impression, you determine this patient may be a
medical or trauma patient. Your initial assessment should focus on:
A.
identifying if he is a trauma or medical patient.
B.
life-threatening problems.
C.
obtaining vital signs and history.
D.
identifying the toxicity of the paint.
106.
The circulatory assessment in your initial assessment
requires an assessment of:
A.
chest pain, skin, and blood pressure.
B.
pulse, external bleeding, and skin.
C.
pulse, blood pressure, and skin.
D.
bleeding, capillary refill, and chest pain.
107.
Normal capillary refill time is:
A.
less than 1 second.
B.
less than 2 seconds.
C.
more than 2 seconds.
D.
more than 3 seconds.
109.
A 26-year-old construction worker falls 30 feet. He is
unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. You should immediately:
A.
apply oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask.
B.
begin CPR and prepare for transport.
C.
attach an AED and prepare for CPR.
D.
perform a rapid blood sweep.
114.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a
significant mechanism of injury (MOI)?
A.
altered mental status following trauma.
B.
vehicle-pedestrian collision.
C.
a fall of 10 feet.
D.
ejection from a vehicle.
121.
A 52-year-old man trips while walking and falls on his
shoulder. His only complaint is shoulder pain. The focused history and
physical exam for this patient includes:
A.
a rapid trauma exam, vital signs, and history.
B.
a focused trauma exam and vital signs only.
C.
a detailed exam, vital signs, and history.
D.
a focused trauma exam, vital signs, and history.
122.
A 43-year-old woman is complaining of abdominal pain.
Your focused trauma assessment of her chief complaint would include:
A.
inspection for trauma, auscultating breath sounds, and vital
signs.
B.
palpating the abdomen, inspecting for trauma, and vital signs.
C.
percussion and palpation of the abdomen and vital signs.
D.
inspecting for trauma, auscultating bowel sounds, and palpating
the abdomen.
123.
An unstable patient should be reassessed every:
A.
5 minutes.
B.
10 minutes.
C.
15 minutes.
D.
30 minutes.
124.
Which of the following questions would be used to
evaluate the quality of a patient with chest pain?
A.
Will you explain to me this pain in your chest?
B.
Do you feel this pain anywhere other than your chest?
C.
How long ago did you first notice the pain?
D.
Can you describe where the chest pain is?
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