The respiratory system is divided anatomically into the:
A.
right and left.
B.
upper and lower.
C.
anterior and posterior.
D.
oropharynx and nasopharynx.
3.
Labored breathing, difficulty in breathing, or shortness
of breath that may lead to hypoxia is known as:
A.
cyanosis.
B.
dyspnea.
C.
tachypnea.
D.
ecchymosis.
5.
An alert patient has a regular pattern of inhalation and
exhalation and good audible breath sounds on both sides of the chest.
These signs and symptoms suggest:
A.
an obstructed airway.
B.
adequate air exchange.
C.
respiratory difficulty.
D.
respiratory insufficiency.
6.
Because of the different actions and side effects of
respiratory medications, you should:
A.
treat patients with oxygen only.
B.
allow patients to take prescribed drugs as needed.
C.
discontinue all medications to prevent overdose.
D.
consult medical control before giving any medications.
7.
Which of the following side effects can be caused by
respiratory medications?
A.
increased pulse rate, tremors, and nervousness
B.
increased pulse rate and constricted bronchioles
C.
decreased pulse rate, somnolence, and decreased respirations
D.
low blood pressure, increased pulse rate, and increased
respirations
8.
A spontaneous pneumothorax is most likely to occur:
A.
during the winter months.
B.
when the lung is punctured by a broken rib.
C.
in a patient who has emphysema.
D.
when a foreign object blocks the airway.
9.
Your patient is a 45-year-old woman with a history of
emphysema and congestive heart failure. As you observe the patient, you
notice that she is not moving much air. She is also having difficulty
answering your questions. She states that she has an inhaler. What should
you do first?
A.
Put the patient in the ambulance and rapidly transport.
B.
Give her the medication, followed by a complete set of vitals.
C.
Contact medical control to obtain permission to give the
medication.
D.
Make sure that she does not get any oxygen because of her
emphysema.
11.
The primary stimulus for a healthy person to breathe is
the level of:
A.
oxygen in the blood.
B.
carbon dioxide in the blood.
C.
oxygen in the alveoli.
D.
carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
13.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (C)PD) is caused by all of
the following EXCEPT:
A.
chronic bronchitis.
B.
inhaled toxic gasses.
C.
acute myocardial infarction.
D.
cigarette smoking.
14.
Emphysema is a type of COPD characterized by:
A.
a loss of elasticity in alveolar lung tissue leaving a pocket.
B.
increased mucus production that clogs smaller bronchioles.
C.
chronic dilation of bronchial air passages creating trapped air.
D.
fluids collecting in the alveolar space restricting oxygen
exchange.
15.
Acute spasms of bronchiolar muscles and excessive mucus
production is characteristic of:
A.
pulmonary edema.
B.
asthma.
C.
pneumonia.
D.
pleural effusions.
16.
A pleural effusion is best described as:
A.
fluid trapped in the alveoli.
B.
an infection of lung tissue.
C.
a collection of fluid outside the lung.
D.
a collapsed lung.
17.
Risk factors for a pulmonary embolism include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A.
recent surgery.
B.
chronic hypertension.
C.
prolonged bed rest.
D.
unusually fast blood clotting.
19.
A 5-year-old child is in moderate respiratory distress
from an upper airway infection. You should transport this patient in what
position?
A.
Sitting upright, leaning forward in a sniffing position.
B.
Prone to facilitate drainage of secretions.
C.
A low Fowler's position with the knees bent.
D.
Supine to suction secretions as needed.
20.
A patient who has status astmaticus:
A.
is less than 12 years old with a history of asthma.
B.
was recently diagnosed with asthma.
C.
experiences relief of an asthma attack without the use of an
inhaler.
D.
has a prolonged asthma attack unrelieved by medications.
21.
A 16-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea,
numbness, and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her
boyfriend. She has an increased rate and effort of breathing. You should:
A.
have her breathe into a paper bag.
B.
place her on a nonrebreathing mask without oxygen.
C.
observe her respirations without specific treatment of them.
D.
give her oxygen at 100% with a nonrebreathing mask.
23.
While transporting a 67-year-old patient with severe
substernal chest pain, you notice that the patient has become pulseless.
What should you do?
A.
Defibrillate at once with the AED while continuing in route to the
hospital.
B.
Stop the ambulance, start CPR, allow the AED to analyze the
rhythm, and deliver a shock if indicated.
C.
Start CPR and continue on to the hospital, hyperventilating the
patient while transporting.
D.
Start CPR, allow the AED to analyze the heart rhythm, and deliver
a shock if indicated.
26.
Your EMS team is performing CPR on a patient in cardiac
arrest. You connect the AED. CPR is stopped, and the AED analyzes the
rhythm. It indicates that no shock is needed. What should you do next?
A.
Stop all resuscitation efforts.
B.
Start CPR and transport immediately.
C.
Do CPR for 1 minute, stop CPR, and check for a pulse.
D.
Immediately allow the AED to reanalyze. If no shock is indicated,
transport the patient immediately.
30.
The heart muscle receives its primary oxygen supply from
the:
A.
coronary arteries.
B.
pulmonary artery.
C.
superior vena cava.
D.
blood passing through the four chambers.
32.
The AED has delivered six defibrillations to a cardiac
arrest patient you are treating. After delivery of the sixth shock, a
carotid pulse was found. What should you do next?
A.
Transport immediately.
B.
Take a complete set of vital signs.
C.
Contact medical control for advice on how to proceed with the
patient.
D.
Assess whether the patient is breathing, and provide supplemental
oxygen and ventilation if necessary.
35.
Nitroglycerin is used frequently for chest pain because
it:
A.
masks the pain.
B.
prevents cardiac arrest.
C.
keeps the blood pressure high, promoting perfusion.
D.
causes coronary artery dilation, allowing improved blood flow in
the heart.
36.
AED failures most commonly occur because the:
A.
battery is not properly charged.
B.
patient is too large for the AED to be of any benefit.
C.
ECG/defibrillating pads are not adhering to the patient.
D.
EMT is not able to recognize ventricular fibrillation on the
monitor.
37.
When you help a patient take nitroglycerin, you must make
sure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is above:
A.
80 mm Hg.
B.
90 mm Hg.
C.
120 mm Hg.
D.
110 mm Hg.
38.
Before transporting a patient with chest pains, you may
help the patient take up to how many nitroglycerin tablets?
A.
2.
B.
3.
C.
4.
D.
5.
41.
Which of the following symptoms would NOT be a sign of
cardiac problems?
A.
nausea and vomiting.
B.
retrosternal chest pain.
C.
tingling in the fingertips.
D.
sudden onset of sweating.
42.
You have responded to the Senior Citizens Center for a
73-year-old man complaining of chest pain. What should your treatment
include?
A.
Place the patient supine on a cot to help him breathe easier.
B.
Ask whether someone has some nitroglycerin that you could give to
the patient.
C.
Get the patient's insurance numbers for the business office of
your service.
D.
Administer oxygen to the patient while conducting an assessment.
43.
What large vein carries blood from the lower parts of the
body to the heart?
A.
brachial.
B.
femoral.
C.
inferior vena cava.
D.
superior vena cava.
45.
After assisting your patient with nitroglycerin, you
should:
A.
place the patient prone to help the nitroglycerin dissolve.
B.
stop giving oxygen, as the nitroglycerin will take the place of
the oxygen.
C.
take the patient's blood pressure again to evaluate whether the
patient is becoming hypotensive.
D.
encourage the patient not to go to the hospital because the doctor
will do exactly the same thing that you are doing.
46.
You have responded to a 47-year-old man who is
complaining of severe chest pain. You suspect that he is having a
myocardial infarction. You apply oxygen at 10 liters via a nonrebreathing
face mask and put the patient in a position of comfort. How many hours
after a myocardial infarction is the risk of cardiac arrest highest?
A.
1.
B.
6.
C.
12.
D.
24.
47.
A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is
performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells
you that the patient has an automatic implantable cardioverter defibrillator (AICD).
The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do?
A.
Do not shock because the shock could damage the AICD.
B.
Do not shock because you know the shock will not be successful.
C.
Proceed as with any other cardiac arrest patient in which the AED
advises a shock.
D.
Deliver a shock, but reduce the energy setting to 50 joules so as
not to damage the AICD.
49.
What is the difference between angina pain and myocardial
infarction pain?
A.
There is no difference.
B.
The pain with a myocardial infarction will most likely decrease if
the patient is allowed to rest.
C.
The pain with an angina attack will most likely increase if the
patient is allowed to rest.
D.
The pain with an angina attack will most likely decrease if the
patient is allowed to rest.
50.
You may note a common occurrence while treating some
patients for possible acute myocardial infarction. These patients may:
A.
have an overwhelming feeling of impending doom.
B.
immediately call their family physician.
C.
take extra sugar to prevent a possible diabetic reaction.
D.
activate the EMS system as soon as the chest pain begins.
51.
A 70-year-old woman is telling you during your assessment
that her chest pain feels like it is going into her neck. You would NOT
expect someone with chest pain to also complain of pain in which of the
following locations?
A.
left arm.
B.
left shoulder.
C.
left lower leg.
D.
right shoulder.
54.
Which of the following statements regarding recommended
ways to give nitroglycerin is FALSE?
A.
A tablet can be swallowed at the first sign of chest pain.
B.
A tablet can be placed under the tongue when there is chest pain.
C.
A spray can be placed under the tongue when there is chest pain.
D.
An adhesive patch can be placed on the skin to be absorbed over a
period of time.
55.
Which of the following actions does NOT pertain to
nitroglycerin?
A.
It dilates the coronary arteries.
B.
It causes the patient to have a headache.
C.
It causes the myocardium to use more oxygen.
D.
It dilates cerebral arteries.
56.
Which of the following will NOT cause artifact for the
AED while the machine is analyzing?
A.
road noise while transporting the patient.
B.
CPR compressions while transporting the patient.
C.
the engine running in an ambulance that has stopped.
D.
moving the cardiac arrest patient down a flight of stairs.
57.
Which of the following is NOT commonly reported for a
patient experiencing a myocardial infarction?
A.
double vision.
B.
sudden onset of pain
.
C.
symptoms ignored or not reported at first.
.
D.
perception that symptoms are the result of something else.
59.
An obese 40-year-old man began having chest pains while
he was playing racquetball. As you assess the patient, you find him
convinced that he is going to die. You should suspect:
A.
a syncopal episode.
B.
acute myocardial infarction.
C.
congestive heart failure.
D.
a spontaneous pneumothorax.
61.
A patient in cardiac arrest undergoes automated external
defibrillation (AED). After the first shock is delivered, you should:
A.
assess for a pulse.
B.
give two artificial ventilations.
C.
reanalyze the rhythm.
D.
start CPR.
64.
Why should oxygen be given to a patient with chest pain?
A.
It is cheap and very easy to give.
B.
Chest pain is an indication for the use of oxygen.
C.
The oxygen delivery system makes the patient feel better.
D.
The oxygen prevents cardiac arrest from occurring.
65.
An acceptable dosage for nitroglycerin is one tablet
every 5 minutes up to a maximum of how many tablets?
A.
2.
B.
3.
C.
4.
D.
5.
66.
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates
in the:
A.
coronary sinus.
B.
sinus node.
C.
AV node.
D.
left ventricle.
67.
Blood clots in the coronary arteries are thought to
commonly form from:
A.
fragments of atherosclerotic plaques breaking off.
B.
higher amounts of cholesterol activating clotting mechanisms.
C.
cracks in the plaque exposing the atherosclerotic wall.
D.
increased calcium attracting platelets to form clumps.
68.
Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor
for heart disease?
A.
hypertension.
B.
high cholesterol.
C.
diabetes.
D.
cerebrovascular accidents.
69.
Which of the following arrhythmias is NOT likely to
result in death?
A.
ventricular fibrillation.
B.
bradycardia.
C.
ventricular tachycardia.
D.
asystole.
71.
Signs or symptoms of an acute episode of congestive heart
failure may include:
A.
pink, frothy sputum.
B.
swelling in the hands and feet.
C.
hypotension.
D.
decreased level of consciousness.
72.
Based on the AHA Chain of Survival, patients in cardiac
arrest have the best chance of survival when:
A.
defibrillation occurs within 2 minutes of pulselessness.
B.
CPR is done for 5 minutes prior to defibrillation.
C.
ALS medications are administered before CPR is begun.
D.
patients are younger than 50 years old.
73.
Interruption of cerebral blood flow in a stroke is NOT
caused by:
A.
cerebral embolism.
B.
cerebral diastasis.
C.
thrombosis.
D.
arterial rupture.
74.
A hemorrhagic stroke may result from:
A.
severe bleeding elsewhere in the body resulting in decreased
cerebral perfusion.
B.
rupture of an aortic aneurysm.
C.
elevated blood pressure resulting in the rupture of a brain blood
vessel.
D.
buildup of atherosclerotic deposits in brain blood vessels.
75.
Successful treatment of stroke depends on:
A.
administration of clot-buster therapy within 24 hours.
B.
administration of medication to restore function of infarcted
cells.
C.
surgical intervention to remove obstructive clots.
D.
administration of clot-buster therapy within 3 hours.
76.
Which of the following is NOT a key physical test for
assessing stroke victims?
A.
facial droop.
B.
straight-line walking.
C.
arm drift.
D.
speech.
78.
A generalized seizure is characterized by:
A.
persistent unconsciousness for 5 to 30 minutes.
B.
a brief lapse of attention.
C.
a body temperature exceeding 105ºF.
D.
twitching of all the body's muscles.
80.
A particularly important aspect of history for a stroke
victim is to determine:
A.
when the patient last ate or drank.
B.
whether the patient is incontinent.
C.
when the patient last appeared normal.
D.
whether the patient is postictal.
81.
What signs would you anticipate in a patient with a right
hemisphere stroke?
A.
trouble moving muscles on the left side of the body, left facial
droop, and slurred speech.
B.
trouble moving muscles on the left side of the body, right facial
droop, and slurred speech.
C.
trouble moving muscles on the right side of the body, left facial
droop, and left arm drift.
D.
trouble moving muscles on the right side of the body, right facial
droop, and right arm drift.
82.
A patient who experienced a generalized seizure now
presents with altered level of consciousness and right hemiparesis. You
should:
A.
transport immediately; this patient had a seizure-induced stroke
and needs immediate medical evaluation.
B.
expect that the right hemiparesis will be accompanied by facial
droop.
C.
expect these symptoms to resolve within 24 hours; it is just a
transient ischemic attack.
D.
expect these symptoms to resolve as the postictal state resolves.
83.
Febrile seizures:
A.
are well tolerated and need no further intervention.
B.
should be treated by immersing the child in cold water.
C.
need medical evaluation although they are usually benign.
D.
are also referred to as petit mal seizures.
84.
Which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause
of seizures?
A.
tumor
B.
hypoglycemia
C.
hypovolemia
D.
poisoning
85.
A school age child is found by a teacher to be staring
blankly and does not respond to her. It is possible the child is having a:
A.
grand mal seizure.
B.
generalized seizure.
C.
postictal seizure.
D.
absence seizure.
88.
A 32-year-old patient is reported to have had a
generalized seizure and is now postictal on your arrival. Your first
action is to:
A.
contact dispatch to send an ALS unit.
B.
determine if airway and breathing are adequate.
C.
obtain a complete set of vital signs.
D.
interview family members for a description of the seizure.
89.
You should be suspicious of a life threatening condition
in a person with a history of seizures when:
A.
they have breakthrough seizures.
B.
the seizure lasts several minutes.
C.
the seizure is different than their usual seizure.
D.
they are postictal for more than 30 minutes.
90.
Pain felt at a location other than its origin is:
A.
transferred pain.
B.
transposed pain.
C.
remote pain.
D.
referred pain.
91.
Shock may occur with an acute abdomen because:
A.
acute abdomen causes internal hemorrhage.
B.
fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.
C.
abdominal distention impairs the heart's ability to pump.
D.
severe pain causes neurogenic shock.
92.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic sign or
symptom of acute abdomen?
A.
pain.
B.
tenderness.
C.
rapid deep breathing.
D.
abdominal distention.
93.
A ruptured ectopic pregnancy:
A.
occurs in the last trimester.
B.
usually presents with mild mid-menstrual-cycle back pain.
C.
is retroperitoneal and therefore does not cause acute abdomen.
D.
is a life-threatening emergency.
94.
Nothing may be given by mouth to a patient with an acute
abdomen because:
A.
digestive sounds prevent accurate auscultation.
B.
food in the stomach prevents a patient from accurately describing
the location of abdominal pain.
C.
intestinal paralysis prevents food or drink from passing out of
the system normally.
D.
it will create referred pain and obscure the diagnosis.
95.
The parietal peritoneum lines the:
A.
surface of the abdominal organs.
B.
walls of the abdominal cavity.
C.
retroperitoneal space.
D.
lungs and chest cavity.
96.
Tensing of abdominal muscles with an acute abdomen is
known as:
A.
protection.
B.
referral.
C.
guarding.
D.
peritonitis.
100.
A 35-year-old mildly obese woman is complaining of
localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the right
shoulder. The probable cause of her abdominal pain would be:
A.
a kidney infection.
B.
appendicitis.
C.
cholecystitis.
D.
pelvic inflammatory disease.
101.
A 23-year-old woman is complaining of severe lower
abdominal pain and a fever. If her symptoms were from an infection of the
fallopian tube, she probably has:
A.
an ectopic pregnancy.
B.
mittelschmerz.
C.
a gastric ulcer.
D.
pelvic inflammatory disease.
102.
A 20-year-old male patient is complaining of a mass
protruding in his groin. It is painful at the site, and the surrounding
skin is bluish. You would suspect a serious problem of:
A.
strangulated hernia.
B.
hernia peritonea.
C.
congenital hernia.
D.
herniation syndrome.
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