Exam 8
 

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 Exam 8 THIS EXAM CONTAINS 119 QUESTIONS - MUST RETAKE UNTIL YOU MISS 19 OR LESS. Some answers may be keyed wrong. Please bring this to our attention to change.

 

 

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1. Which of the following terms defines when the body's tissues are exposed to energy levels beyond their tolerance level?
 
A. collision #1.
 
B. closed injuries.
 
C. traumatic injuries.
 
D. open injuries.
 



 

2. The energy of a moving object is called:
 
A. kinetic energy.
 
B. work.
 
C. potential energy.
 
D. latent energy.
 



 

3. When considering the speed of a bullet to the size of the bullet, the effect of speed on injury potential is:
 
A. lesser.
 
B. greater.
 
C. equal.
 
D. irrelevant.
 



 

4. The term for the forces that act upon a person's body to cause injury is:
 
A. mechanism of injury.
 
B. force of energy.
 
C. potential injury.
 
D. kinematics of injury.
 



 

5. The collision of a car against another object is the:
 
A. first collision.
 
B. second collision.
 
C. third collision.
 
D. fourth collision.
 



 

6. The collision of a passenger in a vehicle against the interior of the vehicle is the:
 
A. first collision.
 
B. second collision.
 
C. third collision.
 
D. fourth collision.
 



 

7. During a vehicle collision or fall, the collision of the person's internal organs against the solid structure of the body is the:
 
A. first collision.
 
B. second collision.
 
C. third collision.
 
D. fourth collision.
 



 

8. The EMT-B should consider any fall in excess of ____ feet as significant.
 
A. 6.
 
B. 9.
 
C. 10.
 
D. 15.
 



 

9. When assessing a person who has fallen, the EMT-B should generally consider all of the following EXCEPT:
 
A. height of fall.
 
B. surface struck.
 
C. speed of fall.
 
D. part of body hitting first.
 



 

10. The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the speed of a bullet is known as:
 
A. cavitation.
 
B. capitalization.
 
C. congruent.
 
D. conversion.
 



 

11. Newton's first law says:
 
A. Objects at rest tend to stay at rest, and objects in motion tend to stay in motion unless acted upon by some force.
 
B. Force equals mass times acceleration.
 
C. Objects in motion will come to rest and then stay at rest.
 
D. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
 



 

12. Newton's second law says:
 
A. Objects at rest tend to stay at rest, and objects in motion tend to stay in motion unless acted upon by some force.
 
B. Force equals mass times acceleration.
 
C. Objects in motion will come to rest and then stay at rest.
 
D. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
 



 

13. Newton's third law says:
 
A. Objects at rest tend to stay at rest, and objects in motion tend to stay in motion unless acted upon by some force.
 
B. Force equals mass times acceleration.
 
C. Objects in motion will come to rest and then stay at rest.
 
D. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
 



 

14. The most common life-threatening event in a rollover collision is:
 
A. collision #1.
 
B. ejection.
 
C. lateral collision.
 
D. deceleration.
 



 

15. Use of a shoulder harness without a lap belt can result in:
 
A. upper extremity injuries.
 
B. thoracic displacement.
 
C. whiplash injuries.
 
D. submarining injuries.
 



 

16. When assessing a penetrating would, the EMT-B must always be aware of:
 
A. speed of penetration.
 
B. entrance and exit sites.
 
C. dullness or sharpness of weapon.
 
D. duration of penetration.
 



 

17. Which of the following collisions is most likely to produce the greatest amount of kinetic energy?
 
A. A compact car traveling 70 mph.
 
B. A mid-sized car traveling 50 mph.
 
C. A large sedan traveling 35 mph.
 
D. A pickup truck traveling 25 mph.
 



 

18. During the scene size-up of a motor vehicle collision, a simple, quick evaluation of the interior of the car will help to:
 
A. determine the speed the vehicle was going at the time of the crash.
 
B. recognize if the driver was trying to brake before the collision.
 
C. identify contact points to identify potential injuries.
 
D. determine how much fuel is in the car and its potential for explosion.
 



 

19. Twenty-five percent of severe aorta injuries occur during:
 
A. rear-end collisions.
 
B. lateral collisions.
 
C. frontal collisions.
 
D. rollover collision.
 



 

20. A good rule to use when evaluating the significance of a pediatric fall is to use the guide:
 
A. falls greater than 2 times the child's height are significant.
 
B. falls greater than 3 times the child's height are significant.
 
C. falls greater than 4 times the child's height are significant.
 
D. falls greater than 5 times the child's height are significant.
 



 

21. A calcaneous fracture in a patient suffering from a long fall with a landing on their feet is likely to produce:
 
A. patellar injuries.
 
B. bilateral forearm fractures.
 
C. lumbar spine injuries.
 
D. a dislocated hip.
 



 

22. Blood is carried away from the heart by the:
 
A. veins.
 
B. arteries.
 
C. systemic capillaries.
 
D. pulmonary capillaries.
 



 

23. Blood is returned to the heart by the:
 
A. veins.
 
B. arteries.
 
C. systemic capillaries.
 
D. pulmonary capillaries.
 



 

24. In the pulmonary circulatory system, deoxygenated blood leaves the heart and travels to the lungs via the:
 
A. aorta.
 
B. pulmonary vein.
 
C. pulmonary artery.
 
D. superior vena cava.
 



 

25. What term is used to describe the flow of blood from an artery through a capillary to a vein?
 
A. perfusion.
 
B. metabolism.
 
C. systolic pressure.
 
D. diastolic pressure.
 



 

26. An infant with a blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock after what amount of blood loss?
 
A. 1000mL.
 
B. 250 mL.
 
C. 500 mL.
 
D. 50 mL.
 



 

27. Hypoperfusion is another name for:
 
A. shock.
 
B. cyanosis.
 
C. hypoxia.
 
D. hypertension.
 



 

28. What type of bleeding is difficult to control because of the high pressure?
 
A. venous.
 
B. arterial.
 
C. capillary.
 
D. lymphatic.
 



 

29. What type of bleeding often clots spontaneously?
 
A. venous.
 
B. arteria.l
 
C. capillary.
 
D. lymphatic.
 



 

30. A steady flow of dark-colored blood is characteristic of:
 
A. venous bleeding.
 
B. arterial bleeding.
 
C. capillary bleeding.
 
D. lymphatic bleeding.
 



 

31. When dealing with a patient with external bleeding, you should first:
 
A. start an IV.
 
B. provide oxygen.
 
C. maintain the airway.
 
D. follow body substance isolation (BSI) precautions.
 



 

32. Almost all bleeding can be controlled by:
 
A. elevation.
 
B. direct pressure.
 
C. pressure points.
 
D. packing the wound.
 



 

33. Which of the following devices would be the most helpful in controlling severe bleeding due to massive soft-tissue trauma to the lower extremities?
 
A. tourniquet.
 
B. blood pressure cuff.
 
C. direct pressure with the hand.
 
D. pneumatic antishock garment (PASG).
 



 

34. Which is the best device to use as a tourniquet?
 
A. belt.
 
B. wire.
 
C. blood pressure cuff.
 
D. bandage 1-inch wide and 8 layers thick.
 



 

35. Your care of a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed) should include:
 
A. placing the patient in a supine position.
 
B. applying pressure to the temporal arteries.
 
C. applying pressure to the mandibular arteries.
 
D. applying direct pressure by pinching the nostrils.
 



 

36. Suspicion of internal bleeding should NOT be based on:
 
A. hypotension.
 
B. hypertension.
 
C. mechanism of injury.
 
D. clinical signs and symptoms.
 



 

37. A patient is bleeding from the ears and nose as a result of trauma. You should NOT:
 
A. administer oxygen.
 
B. keep the patient calm and quiet.
 
C. collect the blood with a loose dressing.
 
D. pack the ears and nose to slow the blood flow.
 



 

38. After following BSI precautions, what is your next step in caring for a patient with possible internal bleeding?
 
A. Administer oral fluids.
 
B. Cover the patient with a blanket.
 
C. Place the patient in a supine position.
 
D. Maintain an airway.
 



 

39. After applying a dressing to an arterial bleed, you notice that the dressing becomes soaked with blood. You should:
 
A. replace the dressing with another dressing.
 
B. cover the existing dressing with a plastic bag.
 
C. wrap an elastic bandage around the blood-soaked dressing.
 
D. apply additional dressings and pressure to control the bleeding.
 



 

40. A pneumatic counter pressure device is most commonly used to:
 
A. decrease blood flow during CPR.
 
B. stabilize chronic pulmonary edema secondary to long-standing heart disease.
 
C. control bleeding in adults only.
 
D. maintain a patient's systolic blood pressure at or slightly higher than 100 mm Hg.
 



 

41. You arrive at the home of an adult who has severe epistaxis. You recognize that:
 
A. the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration.
 
B. blood loss is moderate and easy to estimate.
 
C. placing the patient in a supine position will help decrease the bleeding.
 
D. no treatment in the field should be undertaken as rapid transport is necessary.
 



 

42. The passage of black, tarry stools is known as:
 
A. ecchymosis.
 
B. hematochezia.
 
C. melena.
 
D. hematuria.
 



 

43. Coughing up bright red blood is known as:
 
A. hemoptysis.
 
B. hematemesis.
 
C. hematuria.
 
D. hematoma.
 



 

44. A 43-year-old man is experiencing a massive nosebleed. Vital signs reveal that the man has hypertension, which you suspect is the cause of the nosebleed. You should:
 
A. have the patient pinch his nostrils and then lie on his back.
 
B. offer the patient four aspirin tablets to help control the bleeding.
 
C. apply direct pressure by pinching the patient's nostrils and have him lean forward.
 
D. explain that this is nature's way of lowering his blood pressure.
 



 

45. Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for up to 2 hours?
 
A. brain.
 
B. kidney.
 
C. heart.
 
D. muscles.
 



 

46. Which of the following medications will decrease coagulation?
 
A. nitroglycerin.
 
B. metered-dose inhalers.
 
C. aspirin.
 
D. antihypertensives.
 



 

47. Which of the following is a guideline for the use of tourniquets?
 
A. Apply tourniquets over the joint most proximal to the amputation.
 
B. A narrow tourniquet is more effective than a wide one.
 
C. Apply and release a tourniquet every 15 min. if your transport time is longer than 60 min.
 
D. Never cover a tourniquet with a bandage or clothing.
 



 

48. Acceptable documentation of a patient with abdominal bruising would be:
 
A. Ecchymosis noted in the LLQ of the abdomen.
 
B. Periumbilical hematoma observed on abdominal exam.
 
C. Hematochezia is found on assessment of the abdomen.
 
D. RUQ of the abdomen shows hematuria on exam.
 



 

49. What type of shock results from internal and external bleeding?
 
A. psychic.
 
B. neurogenic.
 
C. anaphylactic.
 
D. hypovolemic.
 



 

50. A sign of shock is when capillary refill takes more than how many seconds?
 
A. 1 second.
 
B. 2 seconds.
 
C. 3 seconds.
 
D. 4 seconds.
 



 

51. Which of the following signs is important in assessing the early hypoperfused patient?
 
A. broken bones.
 
B. "raccoon eyes".
 
C. amount of blood on clothes.
 
D. altered level of consciousness.
 



 

52. Which of the following vital signs can be an early indicator of shock?
 
A. rapid, thready, pulse.
 
B. increased temperature.
 
C. elevated blood pressure.
 
D. increased pupillary response.
 



 

53. Which of the following signs or symptoms can be a late indicator of shock?
 
A. restlessness.
 
B. decreased thirst.
 
C. nausea, vomiting.
 
D. labored, irregular breathing.
 



 

54. A hypoperfused patient's respirations usually are NOT:
 
A. shallow.
 
B. labored.
 
C. irregular.
 
D. regular and full.
 



 

55. Which of the following signs or symptoms shows changes early in the hypoperfused patient?
 
A. agitation.
 
B. cyanosis.
 
C. dilated pupils.
 
D. falling blood pressure.
 



 

56. Which of the following statements about capillary dilation is true?
 
A. It is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
 
B. It can result in insufficient blood volume for perfusion.
 
C. It increases in patients exposed to a cold environment.
 
D. It decreases in patients who are in anaphylactic shock.
 



 

57. Which of the following findings is LEAST likely to be associated with late shock?
 
A. weak pulse.
 
B. elevated respiratory rate.
 
C. cool, dry skin.
 
D. a systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mm Hg.
 



 

58. The most important first step in caring for a patient in shock is to:
 
A. give high-concentration oxygen.
 
B. apply a pneumatic counterpressure device.
 
C. examine the patient for other injuries.
 
D. elevate the patient's legs.
 



 

59. A man who has fallen from the roof of a two-story house has obvious bone injuries to his lower extremities and is bleeding freely from a wound to his left side. He has a blood pressure of 104/54 mm Hg, a thready pulse of 128/min, and shallow respirations of 28/min. After securing his airway and giving oxygen by mask at 10 liters per minute, you should next:
 
A. control the bleeding from the wound.
 
B. splint the bone injuries.
 
C. record his vital signs again.
 
D. apply and inflate a pneumatic counterpressure device.
 



 

60. Pump failure is generally associated with what type of shock?
 
A. hypovolemic.
 
B. neurogenic.
 
C. septic.
 
D. cardiogenic.
 



 

61. A sudden reaction of the nervous system leading to syncope is known as:
 
A. septic shock.
 
B. metabolic shock.
 
C. pyschogenic shock.
 
D. hypovolemic shock.
 



 

62. Dyspnea, urticaria, and generalized edema are usually indications of:
 
A. hypovolemic shock.
 
B. anaphylactic shock.
 
C. metabolic shock.
 
D. septic shock.
 



 

63. The last stage of shock is called:
 
A. compensated shock.
 
B. decompensated shock.
 
C. irreversible shock.
 
D. fatal shock.
 



 

64. The only complaint of a 28-year-old unrestrained driver involved in a motor vehicle crash is cervical pain. On exam he is noted to have paralysis of all extremities and absent sensation peripherally; there are no other indications of external or internal bleeding. Vital signs are as follows: pulse of 128/min, thready; respirations of 24/min, shallow, and irregular; and blood pressure of 92/48 mm Hg. You suspect he is in what type of shock?
 
A. anaphylactic.
 
B. psychogenic.
 
C. neurogenic.
 
D. cardiogenic.
 



 

65. A frequent complication related to neurogenic shock is:
 
A. diarrhea.
 
B. hypothermia.
 
C. amnesia.
 
D. dyspnea.
 



 

66. An aggravating factor in hypovolemic shock is:
 
A. dehydration.
 
B. infection.
 
C. recent ingestion.
 
D. hypothermia.
 



 

67. You are called to the home of a 6-year-old male patient with a decreased level of consciousness. The parents report that the child had a decreased appetite and fever beginning 2 days ago controlled with acetaminophen. Last night he was feeling better but complained of weakness in his left lower leg. This morning he was difficult to arouse and slept most of the day. His vital signs are as follows: pulse of 102/min, weak and thready; respirations of 18/min, shallow and labored; and blood pressure of 88/40 mm Hg. You suspect this child has what type of shock?
 
A. hemorrhagic.
 
B. neurogenic.
 
C. septic.
 
D. cardiogenic.
 



 

68. A 10-year-old child has fallen 12 feet from a tree. On exam he is noted to have multiple abrasions and contusions in several areas. He has a deformity of the right forearm and denies having pain in the neck or back. His vital signs are as follows: pulse of 132/min, strong and regular; respirations of 28/min with mild dyspnea; and blood pressure of 110/68 mm Hg. He has been treated with oxygen and covered with a blanket. Additional interventions for shock would include:
 
A. offering him sips of water to calm him down.
 
B. elevating his lower extremities.
 
C. assessing and recording vital signs every 15 minutes.
 
D. applying pediatric PASG to improve perfusion.
 



 

69. A 36-year-old unrestrained driver involved in a motor vehicle crash is complaining of sternal chest pain. Your scene size-up reveals a bent steering wheel and no airbag. On exam you notice an anxious man with an intact but tender rib cage and no other indications of internal or external bleeding. His vital signs are as follows: pulse of 88/min, weak and thready; respirations of 32/min, shallow with guarded respirations; and blood pressure of 92/68 mm Hg. Cyanosis is noted in his lips and fingers. You suspect this patient is experiencing what type of shock?
 
A. respiratory.
 
B. cardiogenic.
 
C. metabolic.
 
D. anaphylactic.
 



 

70. What cells form a watertight, protective seal for the body?
 
A. dermis.
 
B. epidermis.
 
C. muscle layer.
 
D. subcutaneous layer.
 



 

71. What layer of skin contains sweat glands and hair follicles?
 
A. dermis.
 
B. epidermis.
 
C. germinal.
 
D. subcutaneous.
 



 

72. The skin is the major organ for regulating the body's:
 
A. functions.
 
B. secretions.
 
C. respirations.
 
D. temperature.
 



 

73. What structure in the skin carries information from the environment to the brain?
 
A. hair follicles.
 
B. blood vessels.
 
C. sweat glands.
 
D. sensory nerves.
 



 

74. A closed soft-tissue injury with swelling and ecchymosis is called a:
 
A. contusion.
 
B. hematoma.
 
C. concussion.
 
D. crush injury.
 



 

75. What type of injury allows a pool of blood to collect under the skin?
 
A. abrasion.
 
B. avulsion.
 
C. contusion.
 
D. hematoma.
 



 

76. An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue describes what type of injury?
 
A. abrasion.
 
B. avulsion.
 
C. laceration.
 
D. amputation.
 



 

77. You and your partner are called to the scene of a fight. Your patient has a large knife cut across the chest. This is what type of injury?
 
A. abrasion.
 
B. avulsion.
 
C. contusion.
 
D. laceration.
 



 

78. What type of injury appears as a friction rub to the outer skin layer and has little or no oozing of blood?
 
A. abrasion.
 
B. avulsion.
 
C. contusion.
 
D. concussion.
 



 

79. What type of injury is a gunshot wound?
 
A. crush.
 
B. compression.
 
C. amputation.
 
D. penetration.
 



 

80. Your patient has sustained an open wound to the right forearm. No other injuries or problems are noted. You should first:
 
A. take vital signs.
 
B. control bleeding.
 
C. immobilize the part.
 
D. prevent further contamination.
 



 

81. You are treating a patient with an impaled object in the leg. The object should be:
 
A. left alone.
 
B. stabilized in place.
 
C. carefully removed.
 
D. covered with a loose dressing.
 



 

82. A gunshot victim has a sucking chest wound. What type of dressing should you apply?
 
A. occlusive.
 
B. loose, bulky.
 
C. dry, sterile.
 
D. moist, sterile.
 



 

83. What type of dressing should you apply to an abdominal evisceration?
 
A. betadine.
 
B. dry, sterile.
 
C. moist, sterile.
 
D. Vaseline gauze.
 



 

84. Organs are protruding from your patient's abdominal wound. The organs should be:
 
A. left alone.
 
B. placed back inside.
 
C. removed as needed.
 
D. wrapped in aluminum foil.
 



 

85. Burns are classified by:
 
A. pain.
 
B. depth.
 
C. redness.
 
D. swelling.
 



 

86. A patient has a burn that appears charred, dry, and leathery. The patient complains of little or no pain at the site. This burn would be classified as:
 
A. epidermal.
 
B. superficial.
 
C. full-thickness.
 
D. partial-thickness.
 



 

87. The first step in treating any burn is to:
 
A. insert an IV.
 
B. cover the wound.
 
C. soak it in cold water.
 
D. stop the burning process.
 



 

88. What type of dressing should be applied to all burns first?
 
A. betadine.
 
B. Vaseline.
 
C. dry, sterile.
 
D. moist, sterile.
 



 

89. A partial-thickness burn differs from a superficial burn by the presence of:
 
A. pain.
 
B. alkali.
 
C. blisters.
 
D. redness.
 



 

90. A dry chemical has been spilled on your patient. You should:
 
A. brush it off.
 
B. irrigate it with water.
 
C. obtain a sample for identification.
 
D. not go near the patient.
 



 

91. Which of the following types of burns may cause only a small burn to the skin but severe damage to deeper tissues?
 
A. arc.
 
B. flash.
 
C. electrical.
 
D. chemical.
 



 

92. All patients with critical burns should be treated with:
 
A. analgesics.
 
B. 5% dextrose in water.
 
C. supplemental oxygen.
 
D. moist, sterile dressings.
 



 

93. Which of the following examples is NOT considered a dressing?
 
A. Telfa pad.
 
B. air splint.
 
C. adhesive-type.
 
D. 4" x 4" gauze pad.
 



 

94. The main purpose of a bandage is to:
 
A. splint fractures.
 
B. prevent infection.
 
C. create an airtight seal.
 
D. hold dressings in place.
 



 

95. After applying a dressing and bandage, you should check:
 
A. package sterility.
 
B. the opposite limb.
 
C. distal circulation.
 
D. proximal circulation.
 



 

96. A young woman has a complete avulsion injury to her scalp. Your treatment should be to:
 
A. wrap the avulsed tissue in sterile gauze and bring it with you to the emergency department.
 
B. wash the wound before bandaging.
 
C. cover the wound with a moist, sterile dressing.
 
D. apply an elastic bandage that encircles the woman's jaw.
 



 

97. A teenage boy who was involved in a bicycle accident has a puncture wound in which the bicycle kickstand is impaled in his leg. When preparing the patient for transport, you should:
 
A. remove the kickstand by withdrawing it in a circular motion, and apply a dry, sterile dressing.
 
B. cut the kickstand off just above the skin, and stabilize it with a moist, sterile dressing.
 
C. leave the kickstand attached to the bike until the physician can remove it safely.
 
D. unbolt the kickstand from the bike frame and stabilize it with bulky dressings.
 



 

98. What is the most appropriate way to care for an amputated body part?
 
A. Delay care of the part until all of the patient's injuries are treated.
 
B. Wrap the part in a towel soaked in sterile saline solution and place it on the stretcher with the patient.
 
C. Wrap the part in dry, sterile gauze; put it in a plastic bag; and keep it cool.
 
D. Attempt to reimplant the part by bandaging it to the stump tightly to control hemorrhaging.
 



 

99. A woman has a piece of metal trim embedded in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. You should immediately:
 
A. stabilize the metal piece with bulky dressings.
 
B. remove the metal piece and apply direct pressure to the wound.
 
C. remove the metal piece and then apply and inflate a pneumatic counterpressure device.
 
D. cut the metal piece off flush with the skin and seal the wound with sterile aluminum foil.
 



 

100. Using the Rule of Nines, you would calculate that an adult with circumferential burns of both legs would have what percentage of burn?
 
A. 9%.
 
B. 18%.
 
C. 36%.
 
D. 54%.
 



 

101. Proper care for a burn patient should include:
 
A. immersing any burn in water for at least 15 minutes.
 
B. immersing a full-thickness burn in water, even if it is no longer smoldering.
 
C. covering burns with sterile, saline-soaked dressings.
 
D. covering burns with dry, sterile dressings.
 



 

102. Proper care for a chemical burn should include:
 
A. irrigating the affected area to remove any chemicals.
 
B. removing the patient's clothing once irrigation has begun.
 
C. neutralizing strong alkali chemicals with a mild acid bath.
 
D. flooding with water for no more than 5 minutes or until the patient is relieved of pain.
 



 

103. A construction worker who was using a shovel to move soil around a new underground telephone cable is electrocuted after what witnesses say was a big flash in the hole. The patient is lying motionless. You should first:
 
A. put on rubber boots and enter the hole.
 
B. make certain the power is turned off.
 
C. contact the telephone company to determine whether the lines are dead.
 
D. loop a rope and attempt to hook it around the patient's ankle and drag him across the hole.
 



 

104. After arriving at a construction site where a worker has been electrocuted, you have determined that the scene is now safe. Which of the following steps should you take immediately to care for the patient?
 
A. Begin CPR if indicated.
 
B. Cover any wounds with moist, sterile dressings.
 
C. Apply venous tourniquets above burn wounds on the extremities.
 
D. Remove his gloves and examine his hands for wounds.
 



 

105. A motorcyclist has dumped his Harley on the street to avoid hitting a car. He slid on the pavement approximately 10 feet on his left side. During your examination, you notice that his left side has numerous red patches of exposed skin, each slowly oozing red blood. Some appear shiny, and some are contaminated with pavement debris. These wounds are called:
 
A. lacerations.
 
B. punctures.
 
C. abrasions.
 
D. incisions.
 



 

106. You have received a report from another EMT about a patient who was assaulted. The EMT gives you the patient's history and reports the findings of the physical exam. The exam includes the finding of multiple skin contusions and hematomas. What is the difference between a contusion and a hematoma of the skin?
 
A. Contusions and hematomas have the same physical findings.
 
B. Contusions bleed under the skin. Hematomas bleed externally.
 
C. Contusions are damaged skin and blood vessels that form red or blue discolorations of the skin. Hematomas are ruptured blood vessels beneath the skin that bleed enough to form bumps and swelling under the skin.
 
D. Hematomas are damaged skin and blood vessels that form red or blue discolorations of the skin. Contusions are ruptured blood vessels beneath the skin that bleed enough to form bumps and swelling under the skin.
 



 

107. Which of the following is NOT a method of temperature regulation in the skin?
 
A. sweating.
 
B. vasoconstriction.
 
C. vasodilation.
 
D. muscle contraction.
 



 

108. A 42-year-old man has his arm trapped in a printing press. The extrication time to remove his arm is 35 minutes. His arm has had decreased circulation during that time. When the arm is freed, your assessment reveals some superficial abrasions and significant swelling of the arm. The bones appear intact. This patient has probably sustained what type of injury?
 
A. hematoma with ecchymosis.
 
B. compartment syndrome.
 
C. expanding contusion.
 
D. extremity evisceration.
 



 

109. The difference between an amputation and an avulsion is:
 
A. amputations are complete and avulsions are partial.
 
B. amputations may be replaced, avulsions may not.
 
C. amputations are surgical and avulsions are accidental.
 
D. amputations are the same as avulsions.
 



 

110. Which of the following are NOT important in the management of gun shot wounds?
 
A. Make an attempt to determine the type of weapon.
 
B. Inquire from bystanders how many shots were fired.
 
C. Document carefully the circumstances of the shooting.
 
D. Determine the distance the shooter was from the victim.
 



 

111. Assessment for injuries should follow the DCAP-BTLS method. The "S" stands for:
 
A. severity.
 
B. swelling.
 
C. soft spots.
 
D. sucking.
 



 

112. Assessment for injuries should follow the DCAP-BTLS method. The "C" stands for:
 
A. contusion.
 
B. clammy.
 
C. capillary refill.
 
D. cyanosis.
 



 

113. A 56-year-old man was stabbed in the abdomen. Some of his organs are protruding from the wound. This injury would be called a(n):
 
A. exacerbation.
 
B. peritonitis.
 
C. evisceration.
 
D. avulsion.
 



 

114. A young man has a knife impaled in this thigh after he was attacked at the bar. ABCs are stable. Prior to transport the impaled object should be:
 
A. photographed as evidence.
 
B. cleaned as best as you can.
 
C. protected from being bumped.
 
D. removed as quickly as possible.
 



 

115. A 23-year-old woman has been involved in a grass fire. She has 35% partial thickness burns to her torso and legs. You would classify her burns as:
 
A. minor.
 
B. moderate.
 
C. severe.
 
D. critical.
 



 

116. A 67-year-old man was burned in a house fire. He has 20% partial thickness burns to his chest and arms. You would classify his burns as:
 
A. minor.
 
B. moderate.
 
C. severe.
 
D. critical.
 



 

117. A 5-year-old boy received 23% partial thickness burns while playing with matches in the garage. You would estimate his burns as:
 
A. minor.
 
B. moderate.
 
C. severe.
 
D. critical.
 



 

118. A 29-year-old woman has partial thickness burns to all of her left arm and superficial thickness burns to most of her back and flank. Total body surface area burns for this patient using the Rule of Nines would be:
 
A. 18%.
 
B. 22%.
 
C. 27%.
 
D. 36%.
 



 

119. A 21-year-old man working in an auto repair shop has received radiator burns to the anterior portion of both arms, his face, and chest to the lower rib margin. Total body surface area burns for this patient using the Rule of Nines would be:
 
A. 18%
 
B. 22%
 
C. 27%
 
D. 36%
 




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