The bony socket in which the eye is located is called
the:
A.
globe.
B.
retina.
C.
orbit.
D.
chamber.
2.
The opening in the center of the iris that allows light
to move to the back of the eye is called the:
A.
sclera.
B.
pupil.
C.
cornea.
D.
conjunctiva.
3.
A fracture of the bones of the floor of the orbit is
known as a:
A.
blowout fracture.
B.
open fracture.
C.
orbital fracture.
D.
basal fracture.
4.
When caring for a patient with a chemical burn to the
eyes, the
EMT should first:
A.
cover both eyes and transport.
B.
flush with water for 20 or more minutes.
C.
keep eyelids open until at the hospital.
D.
assess pupils every 5 minutes.
5.
When treating a patient with thermal burns to the
eyelids, the EMT should:
A.
cover both eyes with a dry dressing.
B.
cover both eyes with a moist dressing.
C.
keep the patient sitting up with eyes open.
D.
keep the patient lying down with eyes open.
6.
A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights,
specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision is most likely
suffering from:
A.
hyphema.
B.
blowout fracture.
C.
conjunctivitis.
D.
retinal detachment.
7.
When caring for a patient with an object impaled in the
eye with severe bleeding, the EMT should:
A.
stabilize the object and apply significant pressure to stop the
bleeding.
B.
stabilize the object and apply dressings around the eye to control
bleeding.
C.
remove the object and apply direct pressure to the wound.
D.
remove the object and apply moist dressings to the wound.
8.
When caring for a laceration to the globe of the eye, the
EMT should use a dressing and apply:
A.
gentle pressure.
B.
moderate pressure.
C.
direct pressure.
D.
no pressure.
9.
Contact lenses should not be removed in the field except
in cases of:
A.
thermal burns.
B.
chemical burns.
C.
radiation burns.
D.
light burns.
10.
Variations in pupil size may indicate that the patient
has a:
A.
head injury.
B.
contact lenses.
C.
conjunctivitis.
D.
retinitis.
11.
When caring for a penetrating eye injury in which part of
the eyeball is exposed, the EMT should:
A.
gently cover the eye with a dry dressing.
B.
leave the area exposed and transport the patient.
C.
gently cover the eye with a moist dressing.
D.
cover the uninjured eye and transport.
12.
To remove a small foreign object from the surface of a
patient's eye, the EMT should first:
A.
irrigate with salt water.
B.
cover both eyes and transport.
C.
irrigate gently with normal saline.
D.
irrigate forcefully with normal saline.
13.
The light-sensitive area of the eye where images are
projected is the:
A.
iris.
B.
conjunctiva.
C.
lens.
D.
retina.
14.
When caring for an unconscious patient, the EMT should:
A.
keep the eyelids closed to prevent drying.
B.
keep the eyelids open to assess pupils.
C.
apply pressure to the globe to assess for lacerations.
D.
alternate between opening and closing the eyelids.
15.
The white portion of the eye is the:
A.
conjunctiva.
B.
retina.
C.
sclera.
D.
iris.
16.
An industrial machinist reports to the aid station
complaining of a persistent irritation in his eye. On exam you notice some
conjunctival irritation with a round clear pupil. Your assessment should
include:
A.
a visual acuity test at 20 feet.
B.
palpation for globe integrity.
C.
inspection for possible foreign bodies.
D.
determining is photosensitivity is present.
17.
When securing an impaled object in the eye, both eyes are
bandaged to:
A.
reduce movement of the injured eye.
B.
decrease the anxiety of the patient.
C.
treat the possibility of another injury.
D.
prevent a headache from light sensitivity.
18.
A 15-year-old female patient reports severe eye pain. On
exam you notice conjunctivitis and excessive tearing. History reveals she
spent an hour in the tanning bed about 4 hours ago. You suspect she has:
A.
retnal burn.
B.
optic nerve irritation.
C.
retinal detachment.
D.
an eye infection.
19.
Treatment for injuries to an artificial eye:
A.
should be treated the same as injuries to a natural eye.
B.
are less frightening than injuries to a natural eye.
C.
do not require as extensive of an evaluation as a natural eye.
D.
require immediate removal of the prosthesis.
20.
The lower jaw bone is the:
A.
zygoma.
B.
maxilla.
C.
mandible.
D.
mastoid.
21.
Bleeding from facial soft-tissue injuries is best
controlled by:
A.
cold packs and elevation.
B.
direct pressure with dry sterile dressings.
C.
pressure point usage with moist bandages.
D.
constricting bands with dry dressings.
22.
In caring for facial injuries, the EMT's primary
concern is to:
A.
stop all bleeding.
B.
stabilize the c-spine.
C.
maintain an open airway.
D.
assess all vital signs.
23.
Avulsions of the scalp should be cared for by:
A.
placing the avulsed flap back in position and covering with a
moist dressing.
B.
covering the inside of the avulsed flap with a moist dressing and
the scalp with a dry dressing.
C.
covering both the scalp and the avulsed flap with a moist sterile
dressing.
D.
placing the avulsed flap back in place and covering with a dry
dressing.
24.
A nose bleed not associated with hypertension is often
best cared for by:
A.
placing the patient in a sitting position, leaning forward, and
pinching the nostrils together.
B.
placing the patient in a sitting position, leaning backward, and
pinching the nostrils together.
C.
placing the patient in a supine position with gauze pads under the
nostrils.
D.
placing the patient in a lateral position with gauze pads under
the dependent nostril.
25.
Fractures to facial bones are typically the result of:
A.
penetrating injuries.
B.
falls.
C.
blunt trauma.
D.
gunshots.
26.
Crushing injuries to the upper neck are likely to involve
the:
A.
oropharynx.
B.
nasopharynx.
C.
esophagus.
D.
larynx.
27.
The presence of air in soft tissues produces a
characteristic crackling sensation called:
A.
subcutaneous emphysema.
B.
subcutaneous hypoxia.
C.
pulmonary embolus.
D.
spontaneous pneumothorax.
28.
If a neck vein has been opened, air can enter the blood
system causing an:
A.
air thrombus.
B.
air embolus.
C.
pneumothorax.
D.
hemothorax.
29.
The EMT should assume that any patient who has
sustained a direct blow to the mouth or nose has a:
A.
facial fracture.
B.
basal fracture.
C.
blowout fracture.
D.
larynx fracture.
30.
Bleeding from the nose or ears may also cause a
characteristic staining of the dressing, which indicates the presence of:
A.
vitreous humor.
B.
aqueous humor.
C.
lacrimal secretions.
D.
cerebrospinal fluid.
31.
When caring for a child who has a foreign object in the
external auditory canal, the EMT should:
A.
use a Magill forceps to remove the object.
B.
leave the object in place and transport.
C.
use a cotton-tipped swab to remove the objects.
D.
flush out the canal with sterile water.
32.
The upper jaw bone is the:
A.
mandible.
B.
mastoid.
C.
magnum.
D.
maxillae.
33.
A 25-year-old male patient, an unrestrained passenger in
a head-on collision, has struck the windshield with his face. On exam you
notice significant swelling, minimal bleeding, and four missing teeth.
Assessment of this patient should first focus on:
A.
controlling the bleeding.
B.
immobilizing the spine.
C.
managing the airway.
D.
reducing the swelling.
34.
A 6-year-old is riding her bicycle and runs into a
lowered tailgate on a pickup truck. She has moderate respiratory distress
and subcutaneous emphysema on exam. Priority care for this patient
includes:
A.
cardiac monitoring.
B.
rapid transport.
C.
a detailed physical exam.
D.
obtaining vital signs.
35.
A 19-year-old man is attacked and stabbed in the neck.
Priority management of this patient would include:
A.
spinal immobilization.
B.
control of bleeding.
C.
airway management.
D.
assessment for shock.
36.
A patient who sustains a spinal fracture at the level of
C5 to C6 will be paralyzed:
A.
from the waist down.
B.
from the shoulders down.
C.
on the left side only.
D.
on the right side only.
37.
Chest injuries resulting in fractured ribs, sternum, or
whole areas of the chest are usually caused by:
A.
penetrating trauma.
B.
open wounds.
C.
blunt trauma.
D.
spontaneous pneumothorax.
38.
Patients with chest injuries will often present with
signs of respiratory distress, including:
A.
tachypnea.
B.
hypovolemia.
C.
bradycardia.
D.
tachycardia.
39.
Hemoptysis is:
A.
the spitting or coughing up of blood.
B.
blood in the urinary tract.
C.
inflammation of blood cells.
D.
blood in the cardiac sac.
40.
Accumulation of air in the pleural space is known as:
A.
subcutaneous emphysema.
B.
flail chest.
C.
hemothorax.
D.
pneumothorax.
41.
In a patient who has an open chest wound, the sound of
air rushing with exhalation and a characteristic sound with inhalation is
generally known to have a:
A.
whistling chest wound.
B.
rushing chest wound.
C.
sucking chest wound.
D.
reverberating chest wound.
42.
Open chest wounds are generally treated by using a(n):
A.
porous, breathing-type dressing.
B.
occlusive, airtight dressing.
C.
sling and swathe dressing.
D.
pressure dressing and ace bandages.
43.
Patients with a congenitally weak area on the surface of
the lungs are potential victims of:
A.
sudden cardiac arrest.
B.
spontaneous pneumothorax.
C.
costochondral separation.
D.
spontaneous hemothorax.
44.
A patient who has three or more ribs fractured in two or
more places has a:
A.
compound fracture.
B.
tension fracture.
C.
flail chest.
D.
compromised chest.
45.
Increased respiratory distress, distended neck veins, and
tracheal deviation are signs and symptoms associated with a:
A.
pneumothorax.
B.
hemothorax.
C.
tension pneumothorax.
D.
hemopneumothorax.
46.
A detached portion of the chest wall that is moving in
the direction opposite to normal has:
A.
paradoxical motion.
B.
parabolic motion.
C.
converse movement.
D.
bilateral movement.
47.
Blood filling the sac around the heart is known as:
A.
myocardial contusion.
B.
pulmonary contusion.
C.
pericardial tamponade.
D.
pulmonary tamponade.
48.
A sudden, severe compression of the chest that produces
distended neck veins, cyanosis of the face and neck, and hemorrhage into
the sclera is a condition known as:
A.
spontaneous pneumothorax.
B.
traumatic asphyxia.
C.
tension pneumothorax.
D.
pericardial tamponade.
49.
A narrowing of the pulse pressure, weak pulse, low blood
pressure, and faint heart sounds are indications of:
A.
myocardial contusion.
B.
pulmonary contusion.
C.
pericardial tamponade.
D.
pulmonary tamponade.
50.
Pain aggravated by the normal process of breathing and
described as "sharp" or "sticky" is called:
A.
dyspnea.
B.
pleurisy.
C.
dyspneumonia.
D.
pneumonitis.
51.
Tapping all four sides of an occlusive dressing for an
open chest wound may create:
A.
a reduction in intrathoracic pressure.
B.
hypertension and tachycardia.
C.
a tension pneumothorax.
D.
improved peripheral perfusion.
52.
A 31-year-old man is stabbed in the chest. He is noted to
have a sucking chest wound sealed with a four-sided occlusive dressing. If
signs of tension develop, the EMT should:
A.
remove the dressing completely.
B.
remove only part of the dressing.
C.
add another dressing over the first.
D.
change the occlusive dressing to a gauze dressing.
53.
An 81-year-old woman is struck by a car while crossing
the street. Her assessment reveals an intact chest wall, unilateral breath
sounds, and a deviated trachea. Priority care for this patient would
include:
A.
splinting the chest with a soft pillow.
B.
requesting advanced life support.
C.
inserting a needle into the pleural space.
D.
administering abdominal thrusts.
54.
A 37-year-old truck driver was pinned between a truck and
the dock. On exam you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins,
bilateral but decreased breath sounds, and cyanosis. Priority care for
this patient includes:
A.
rapid transport to the hospital.
B.
ventilatory support.
C.
contacting medical control.
D.
deferring vital signs.
55.
The spilling of the contents of hollow organs in the
abdomen causes an intense inflammatory reaction called:
A.
pericarditis.
B.
peritonitis.
C.
appendicitis.
D.
urinemia.
56.
Because of a rich blood supply, injuries to the ______
organs of the abdomen may cause severe bleeding.
A.
hollow.
B.
solid.
C.
intestinal.
D.
urinary.
57.
The most common sign of a significant abdominal injury
is:
A.
tachycardia.
B.
pain.
C.
tachypnea.
D.
referred pain.
58.
A patient who is contracting the abdominal muscles to
ease pain is said to be:
A.
referring.
B.
withdrawing.
C.
flexing.
D.
guarding.
59.
Common symptoms of an abdominal injury include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A.
localized tenderness.
B.
difficulty with movement.
C.
desire to pull the legs up.
D.
hunger and thirst.
60.
An abdominal injury in which internal organs protrude
through the open wound is known as an:
A.
amputation.
B.
avulsion.
C.
evisceration.
D.
exacerbation.
61.
When caring for an open abdominal wound from which organs
are protruding, the EMT should:
A.
cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.
B.
cover the wound with a moist sterile dressing.
C.
apply an occlusive air tight dressing.
D.
apply a Vaseline gauze dressing.
62.
Impaled objects in the abdomen should be:
A.
stabilized in place.
B.
removed quickly.
C.
gently removed.
D.
removed only if bleeding is present.
63.
A sign of kidney damage following blunt trauma is:
A.
hemoptysis.
B.
hematolysis.
C.
hematinemia.
D.
hematuria.
64.
Fractures of the pelvis can result in laceration of the:
A.
peritoneum.
B.
urinary bladder.
C.
kidneys.
D.
liver.
65.
Bleeding from a traumatic injury to the penis should be
controlled by:
A.
loose dressings.
B.
pressure points.
C.
direct pressure.
D.
tourniquet.
66.
When caring for bleeding injuries to the female
genitalia, the EMT should NEVER:
A.
use direct pressure.
B.
place dressings into the vagina.
C.
use moist dressings.
D.
apply diaper-style bandages in the area.
67.
Injuries to the abdomen of a pregnant patient are of
concern not only because of the fetus, but also because the:
A.
urinary bladder is often full.
B.
fallopian tubes may swell.
C.
urethra may occlude causing pain.
D.
pregnant uterus has a rich blood supply.
68.
Within the genitourinary system, the ______ is/are solid
org
A.
bladder.
B.
urethra.
C.
ureters.
D.
kidneys.
69.
An example of a solid organ is the:
A.
uterus.
B.
bladder.
C.
pancreas.
D.
ureter.
70.
An example of a hollow organ is:
A.
appendix.
B.
liver.
C.
spleen.
D.
pancreas.
71.
A 12-year-old female patient is the restrained passenger
of a significant automobile crash. During extrication you notice that her
seat belt is too high above her pelvis. She is complaining of severe upper
abdominal pain and muscle spasms in her abdomen. You are concerned that
she might have:
A.
a pneumothorax.
B.
a ruptured bladder.
C.
peritonitis.
D.
a lumbar spine injury.
72.
All of the following would be appropriate treatments for
a patient with abdominal trauma who is in shock EXCEPT:
A.
covering him or her with a warm blanket.
B.
providing prompt transport.
C.
small sips of water if not nauseated.
D.
oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
73.
Which of the following patients is most at risk from an
air bag injury?
A.
short patients.
B.
tall patients.
C.
old patients.
D.
obese patients.
74.
Which of the following types of muscle works under
conscious control?
A.
cardiac.
B.
smooth.
C.
voluntary.
D.
involuntary.
75.
Connective bands of tissue attaching muscle to bone are
called:
A.
fascia.
B.
tendons.
C.
cartilage.
D.
ligaments.
76.
Bone marrow produces:
A.
platelets.
B.
lymphocytes.
C.
red blood cells.
D.
white blood cells.
77.
The four major functions of the skeletal system are form,
support, movement, and:
A.
shape.
B.
stature.
C.
protection.
D.
locomotion.
78.
The spinal cord is protected by:
A.
ribs.
B.
discs.
C.
vertebrae.
D.
phalanges.
79.
The place where two bones come in contact is called a:
A.
bicep.
B.
joint.
C.
tendon.
D.
ligament.
80.
Bone deformity, with no evidence of a break in the skin,
describes what type of fracture?
A.
open.
B.
closed.
C.
distal.
D.
penetrating.
81.
Which of the following fractures is considered the most
serious?
A.
open.
B.
closed.
C.
blunt.
D.
distal.
82.
Which type of fracture occurs when a bone breaks through
the skin?
A.
open.
B.
closed.
C.
complete.
D.
incomplete.
83.
What is the most reliable sign of a bone or joint injury?
A.
edema.
B.
deformity.
C.
discoloration.
D.
point tenderness.
84.
The first step in assessing a patient with a suspected
broken bone is to check for:
A.
airway, bruising, and crepitus.
B.
airway, breathing, and circulation.
C.
pain, swelling, and deformity.
D.
crepitus, edema, and ecchymosis.
85.
All injuries to bones and joints should be splinted:
A.
with traction splints.
B.
before transportation.
C.
before other life-threatening problems are treated.
D.
with a pneumatic antishock garment (PASG).
86.
Which of the following treatments helps to prevent motion
of bone fragments or angulated joints?
A.
dressing.
B.
assessing.
C.
splinting.
D.
bandaging.
87.
When splinting an injury, you should immobilize the:
A.
injury site.
B.
joint below the injury.
C.
joint above the injury.
D.
joint above and below the injury.
88.
Assessing the injury site should include:
A.
regional anesthesia.
B.
removing the clothing.
C.
manipulating the extremity.
D.
checking proximal circulation.
89.
To prevent pressure and discomfort, all rigid splints
should be:
A.
wide.
B.
secure.
C.
padded.
D.
aluminum.
90.
You should immobilize all suspected spinal injuries in:
A.
traction splints.
B.
the prone position.
C.
the position of deformity.
D.
the neutral in-line position.
91.
Which of the following types of immobilization should be
applied until an injury site is splinted?
A.
passive.
B.
manual.
C.
traction.
D.
mechanical.
92.
How should you treat a possible fracture?
A.
When in doubt, splint the injury.
B.
Apply traction to all fractures.
C.
Never elevate a splinted extremity.
D.
Assess pulse and motor and sensory functions proximal to the
injury site.
93.
Your goal in treating extremity injuries is to reduce:
A.
pain and prevent circulation.
B.
pain and prevent further injury.
C.
infection and provide comfort.
D.
infection and prevent further injury.
94.
You should elevate an injured extremity to:
A.
create traction.
B.
reduce swelling.
C.
enhance edema.
D.
enhance circulation.
95.
After applying a splint to an injured limb, you should
next:
A.
measure the splint.
B.
immobilize the limb with a splint.
C.
assess motor function, sensation, and circulation.
D.
follow BSI precautions.
96.
Applying a splint too tightly can:
A.
reduce pain.
B.
limit mobility.
C.
enhance circulation.
D.
reduce distal circulation.
97.
A 12-year-old patient is complaining of pain to the right
wrist. There is some point tenderness. However, there is no deformity, and
there is full range of motion. Your treatment should include:
A.
doing nothing at this time.
B.
applying heat, but no splint.
C.
splinting the wrist and transporting for evaluation.
D.
applying ice and releasing the patient to the parents.
98.
Which of the following bones is most commonly injured?
A.
tibia.
B.
femur.
C.
radius.
D.
clavicle.
99.
After applying a sling to support an injured upper
extremity, you should apply:
A.
traction.
B.
a splint.
C.
a swathe.
D.
a bandage.
100.
Splinting an injured hand includes:
A.
no immobilization.
B.
placing the hand in a closed fist position.
C.
placing the hand in a position of function.
D.
immobilizing the hand in a flat, extended position.
101.
How many times should you attempt to reposition a
slightly angulated broken bone?
A.
0.
B.
1.
C.
2.
D.
3.
102.
Which of the following types of splints should be used
for a fracture to the clavicle?
A.
pillow splint.
B.
sling and swathe.
C.
Oregon splint II.
D.
Kendrick extrication device.
103.
What is the most common sign or symptom of a fracture?
A.
pain.
B.
edema.
C.
deformity.
D.
ecchymosis.
104.
The motion of rotating a limb inward and across the
midline is known as:
A.
abduction.
B.
adduction.
C.
extension.
D.
flexion.
105.
The first step in caring for a child believed to have an
injured upper arm after a bicycle crash is to:
A.
remove any clothing from around the suspected injury.
B.
check for the presence of a distal pulse.
C.
cover all wounds with dry, sterile dressings.
D.
apply gentle traction to align the limb.
106.
The second step in caring for an upper arm injury is to:
A.
remove any clothing from around the suspected injury.
B.
check for the presence of a distal pulse.
C.
cover all wounds with dry sterile dressings.
D.
apply gentle traction to align the limb.
107.
The third step in caring for an upper arm injury is to:
A.
remove any clothing from around the suspected injury.
B.
check for the presence of a distal pulse.
C.
cover all wounds with dry sterile dressings.
D.
apply gentle traction to align the limb.
108.
A patient with a broken leg is properly splinted and
ready for transport. What other steps could be taken to prevent additional
discomfort to the patient?
A.
Allow the patient to drink warm fluids.
B.
Elevate the injured limb slightly.
C.
Apply hot packs to the injured limb.
D.
Encourage the patient to flex the foot.
109.
Appropriate treatment of a severely angulated, midshaft
humeral bone injury should include:
A.
applying a traction splint.
B.
using a pillow splint to immobilize the area.
C.
straightening and splinting the injury.
D.
using an air splint to stabilize the injury.
110.
An important step in caring for a patient believed to
have a broken or dislocated elbow is to:
A.
always splint the limb in the position found.
B.
evaluate distal neurovascular status before and after the limb is
immobilized.
C.
complete splinting with a collar and cuff to further support the
weight of the arm.
D.
avoid realignment if the limb is pulseless.
111.
An apparently intoxicated 23-year-old woman attempted to
tackle her boyfriend by jumping from the handrail outside her second-story
apartment. The boyfriend dodged her tackle and was not injured. The woman
has severe pain in both feet and an obvious deformity in her lower left
leg at the ankle. Witnesses tell your partner that she landed flat-footed.
During a secondary survey, you discover that the capillary refill time in
the toes of her left foot is nearly 4 seconds. You should:
A.
apply a pillow splint around her ankle.
B.
lower her foot from the stretcher to improve blood flow.
C.
apply gentle traction to the bone injury and splint the ankle with
a padded rigid splint.
D.
place her in a pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) to help
immobilize the ankle.
112.
An 82-year-old man is complaining of pain in his right
hip. His right leg is externally rotated and shortened. Which of the
following devices should you use to move him?
A.
stair chair.
B.
long backboard.
C.
Stokes stretcher.
D.
portable stretcher.
113.
How do you determine if an extremity is swollen?
A.
Auscultate the injured extremity.
B.
Compare it to the other, uninjured extremity.
C.
Elevate it to see whether the extremity changes in size.
D.
Ask the patient whether the extremity looks normal in size.
114.
Bones are held to other bones by tough fibrous tissues
called:
A.
tendons.
B.
ligaments.
C.
cartilage.
D.
bursa.
115.
The disruption of a bone end from its normal location
describes an injury known as:
A.
fracture.
B.
strain.
C.
dislocation.
D.
sprain.
116.
Stretching or tearing of supportive ligaments describes
a:
A.
strain.
B.
sprain.
C.
fracture.
D.
dislocation.
117.
Stretching or tearing of muscular tissue results in a:
A.
sprain.
B.
strain.
C.
dislocation.
D.
fracture.
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