Exam 10

Exam 10 THIS EXAM CONTAINS 64 QUESTIONS - MUST RETAKE UNTIL YOU MISS 18 OR LESS. Some answers may be keyed wrong. Please bring this to our attention to change.

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Into what two parts is the nervous system divided?

A.	sensory and somatic.

B.	sensory and autonomic.

C.	peripheral and somatic.

D.	central and peripheral.

Which of the following types of nerves carry information from the body to the central nervous system?

motor.

central.

sensory.

somatic.

Which part of the nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord?

central.

sensory.

somatic.

D.	autonomic.

Which part of the nervous system is an extension of the brain and is protected by the spinal canal?

meninges.

B.	spinal cord.

C.	brain stem.

D.	motor nerves.

The largest part of the brain is the:

cranium.

cerebrum.

C.	cerebellum.

D.	foramen magnum.

Which of the following are the three major areas of the brain?

A.	frontal, parietal, occipital.

B.	cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem.

C.	cranium, brain stem, spinal cord.

D.	cranium, skull, foramen magnum.

Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve to another?

somatic.

B.	peripheral.

C.	connecting.

D.	autonomic.

The nervous system has a built-in protection action that withdraws the body from pain. What is this action called?

reflex.

somatic.

C.	conscious.

D.	automatic.

The part of the brain responsible for cardiac, respiratory, and other vital life functions is called the:

cerebrum.

B.	brain stem.

C.	cerebellum.

D.	occipital lobe.

10.

How many vertebrae protect the spinal cord?

12.

31.

33.

11.

The area of the head that contains and protects the brain is called the:

clavicle.

cranium.

cerebrum.

D.	cerebellum.

12.

When you suspect a head injury, it is important to look at:

A.	scene safety.

B.	personal safety.

C.	the mechanism of injury.

D.	the mechanism of extraction.

13.

Which type of precautions should always be taken first for patients with suspected head injuries?

A.	Splint all extremities.

B.	Protect the cervical spine.

C.	Ensure that the patient's pulse rate is at least 120 beats/min.

D.	Use the head tilt-chin lift maneuver to restore the patient's airway.

14.

Injuries of the lower extremities may indicate a problem with what area of the spine?

lumbar.

cervical.

thoracic.

D.	coccygeal.

15.

Spinal injuries can be difficult to detect. Along with the patient's physical signs and symptoms, you must consider the:

A.	pupil size.

B.	vital signs.

C.	initial assessment.

D.	mechanism of injury.

16.

If you already know the mechanism of injury, how could you determine if there is a spinal injury in a conscious patient?

A.	by the extrication methods used.

B.	by the in-line stabilization method used.

C.	through a history and physical exam.

D.	by the patient's ability to answer questions.

17.

As you assess a conscious patient, you should examine the lower extremities for:

strength.

priapism.

C.	distention.

D.	distraction.

18.

Which of the following methods should be used to open the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury?

A.	trauma jaw thrust.

B.	basic chin lift alone.

C.	head tilt alone.

D.	head tilt-chin lift.

19.

What device should be used to maintain an open airway in an unconscious patient?

A.	jaw screw.

B.	tongue blade.

C.	oropharyngeal airway.

D.	nasopharyngeal airway.

20.

After ensuring an open airway in a patient with a spinal injury, your next step should be to:

A.	apply cervical traction.

B.	apply the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

C.	apply in-line cervical stabilization.

D.	complete a detailed physical exam.

21.

A patient with a cervical spine injury may have respiratory failure. What can occur if respiratory assistance is delayed?

death.

B.	paralysis.

kyphosis.

D.	obstruction.

22.

Once a cervical collar is in place, the collar should support the mandible (lower jaw) and sit on the:

ribs.

scapula.

C.	shoulder girdle.

D.	upper extremities.

23.

A cervical collar must NOT prevent the patient or you from:

A.	lateral movement.

B.	opening the airway.

C.	rotational movement.

D.	axial loading of the neck.

24.

You arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle crash. The patient is found sitting behind the steering wheel. Your assessment indicates a possible cervical spine injury. Your first action should be to:

A.	apply an Oregon splint.

B.	apply a cervical spine immobilization collar.

C.	rotate and secure the patient on a long backboard.

D.	secure the patient to a Kendrick extrication device.

25.

Which of the following statements about providing manual support of the head for a patient with a cervical spine injury is true?

A.	It is not necessary if a cervical collar is used.

B.	It can be released after a cervical collar is applied.

C.	It can be released after a short backboard is applied.

D.	It must be maintained until the head is secured to a long backboard.

26.

You do not have a cervical collar to fit a patient with a possible cervical spine injury. You are also unable to move the head into the in-line position. Your first step should be to:

A.	use IV bags to stabilize the head.

B.	use sandbags to stabilize the head.

C.	use a rolled towel and tape the head to a backboard.

D.	apply any cervical collar, since it is better than no collar.

27.

A cervical collar should NOT be used if:

A.	manual stabilization is achieved.

B.	the in-line position cannot be achieved.

C.	the patient can keep his or her head still.

D.	the patient is placed on a Kendrick extrication device.

28.

You are called to a home where a patient has fallen down some stairs. You find the patient sitting in a chair. A short backboard should be used on this patient because:

A.	only a cervical collar is needed.

B.	no spinal immobilization is needed.

C.	it makes it easier to move the patient.

D.	it is a safeguard against changing a spinal injury into spinal cord damage.

29.

After stabilizing the head and applying a cervical collar, the first body part to be secured to the short backboard is the:

head.

chest.

legs.

chin.

30.

During extrication, a short backboard should only be used to immobilize a patient who is:

prone.

sitting.

supine.

standing.

31.

After a patient is immobilized to a short backboard, your next step is to remove the patient to:

A.	the ground.

B.	a Stokes basket.

C.	a long backboard.

D.	an ambulance stretcher.

32.

Despite the lack of obvious signs and symptoms, whenever there is any possibility of spinal injury, you should:

A.	apply traction splinting.

B.	apply a cardiac monitor.

C.	apply rigid immobilization.

D.	perform rapid extrication.

33.

Which device is used to immobilize patients found in a lying, standing, or sitting position?

A.	Oregon splint.

B.	long backboard.

C.	short backboard.

D.	Kendrick extrication device.

34.

When securing the patient on a long backboard, you should:

A.	remove the short backboard first.

B.	immobilize from head to foot.

C.	immobilize the head before the torso.

D.	immobilize the torso before the head.

35.

You should use rapid extrication to remove the patient when the scene is:

a car.

clear.

secure.

D.	threatening.

36.

After gaining access to a patient in an automobile crash, you find that the patient has cold, clammy skin and difficulty breathing. There are no radial pulses, and the carotid pulse is weak and rapid. You should:

A.	rapidly extricate the patient and transport.

B.	apply oxygen and a short extrication collar.

C.	rapidly apply the Kendrick extrication device.

D.	perform a thorough assessment, including a detailed exam.

37.

What are the two most used types of helmets?

A.	bicycle and sports

B.	sports and motorcycle

C.	motorcycle and diving

D.	motorcycle and bicycle

38.

Face cages on sports helmets are attached with clips or straps. They can be removed quickly by:

lifting.

cutting.

pulling.

D.	unsnapping.

39.

You arrive on the scene of a motorcycle crash. The patient has point tenderness from the fifth to the seventh cervical vertebrae but is able to move all extremities. The patient has a pulse of 92 beats/min and normal respirations of 16 breaths/min. The patient is wearing an open-face helmet. Cervical immobilization would include:

A.	cutting the helmet off at the scene.

B.	removing the helmet before immobilization.

C.	applying a cervical collar before removal of the helmet.

D.	leaving the helmet in place and securing the patient to a backboard.

40.

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for removing a helmet at the scene?

A.	The patient has point tenderness at the site of injury.

B.	Proper spinal immobilization is difficult but possible.

C.	There is good fit with little movement inside the helmet.

D.	It is difficult to maintain an open airway with the helmet in place.

41.

For a helmet to remain on a patient it must NOT prevent access to the patient's:

eyes.

airway.

C.	carotid pulse.

D.	posterior neck.

42.

How many EMT's are needed to maintain immobilization of the cervical spine during helmet removal?

43.

In maintaining stabilization of the cervical spine during helmet removal, one of your hands should be on the patient's:

A.	chin and the other on the forehead.

B.	chin and the other behind the neck.

C.	maxilla and the other on the mandible.

D.	mandible and the other on the occipital region.

44.

When you are immobilizing a child to a long backboard, you should place padding under the child's:

head.

neck.

C.	shoulders.

D.	low back and buttocks.

45.

During a four-person log roll, the rescuer in charge is at the patient's:

head.

chest.

waist.

D.	lower extremities.

46.

Bleeding might be more profuse than expected with injuries to the:

nose.

chest.

scalp.

forearm.

47.

Signs and symptoms of a brain injury include:

A.	scalp laceration.

B.	low blood pressure.

C.	blood from the mouth.

D.	clear fluid from the ears and nose.

48.

The best indicator of brain injury is:

A.	low blood pressure.

B.	an increasing pulse rate.

C.	a regular breathing pattern.

D.	an altered or decreasing mental status.

49.

A concrete finisher has been hit in the head by a steel girder that was being placed by a crane. The man is unconscious and has a large scalp laceration on the left side of his head, starting just above his ear. The best way to ensure that the worker has an adequate airway is to:

A.	use the jaw-thrust maneuver.

B.	use a head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

C.	give oxygen via a nasal cannula.

D.	place the patient in a head-down position.

50.

Prehospital care for a large scalp avulsion should include:

A.	applying a Vaseline gauze dressing.

B.	irrigating with sterile saline solution.

C.	applying direct pressure at the skin bridge.

D.	replacing the flap in its bed and applying a dry, sterile, compression dressing over it.

51.

If you observe bleeding from a scalp laceration, you should:

A.	pack the wound with cotton balls.

B.	cover the wound with sterile aluminum foil.

C.	apply direct pressure with a dry sterile dressing.

D.	pack the injured side of the head with ice to reduce swelling.

52.

The most reliable evaluation you can make while assessing a head injury is to observe and record the patient's:

A.	pulse rate.

B.	blood pressure.

C.	pupillary response.

D.	level of consciousness.

53.

The first step in restoring the airway of an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury is to:

A.	use a jaw-thrust maneuver, keeping the head in the position found.

B.	apply a simple face mask to provide more oxygen.

C.	insert an oropharyngeal airway.

D.	apply gentle traction (approximately 10 lb) and realign the head in the eyes-forward position.

54.

A woman is believed to have a spinal injury after a motorcycle crash in which she was wearing a helmet. Which of the following statements about care of this patient is true?

A.	The helmet should be left in place if it appears loose enough for one EMT-B to remove.

B.	The only reason to remove the helmet in the field is to establish an adequate airway.

C.	If airway maintenance is possible with a snug-fitting helmet in place, the helmet should be left on the patient and taped to the backboard.

D.	Chin straps should be left in place to maintain proper alignment of the helmet on the patient's head.

55.

You have started caring for a patient who is still sitting in his vehicle after an automobile crash. The patient has pain in his upper back and tingling in his fingers and toes. You should:

A.	secure the patient's trunk to a short backboard before fixing his head to the device.

B.	insert an oropharyngeal airway.

C.	extricate the patient directly onto a long backboard.

D.	securely tape the patient's chin and forehead to the backboard before moving him.

56.

Your first step in assessing whether a patient has a possible spinal injury is to:

A.	ask the patient to wiggle the toes and fingers.

B.	question the patient about areas of pain or weakness.

C.	palpate the spine for deformity or tenderness.

D.	examine the face and neck for contusions.

57.

The most important observation you can make and record in a patient with a head injury is any change in the:

A.	respiratory rate and pattern.

B.	level of consciousness.

C.	blood pressure and pulse rate.

D.	neurologic status of the extremities.

58.

A man who was ejected from a car is lying in a supine position near the car. He requires immobilization on a long backboard. You should:

A.	place a large pad behind his back.

B.	log roll the patient toward the board and place him in a prone position.

C.	secure the patient's trunk to the board before his head and neck.

D.	assign the person located at the foot of the patient to coordinate the log-rolling activity.

59.

A temporary loss of brain function due to injury describes a:

A.	contusion.

B.	concussion.

C.	cerebral infarct.

subdural.

60.

A permanent loss of brain function due to an injury describes a:

A.	concussion.

B.	contusion.

epidural.

D.	cerebral episode.

61.

Intracranial bleeding that occurs in the brain tissues is called:

subdural.

epidural.

C.	subarachnoid.

D.	intracerebral.

62.

Bleeding outside the dura and under the skull is called:

epidural.

subdural.

C.	parenchymal.

D.	subarachnoid.

63.

The "shock absorber" for the brain is the:

A.	blood in the intracranial vessels.

B.	cerebrospinal fluid.

C.	dura mater fluid.

D.	cranial fossa.

64.

Being older than 75 years in age, living alone, and recent death of a significant other are:

A.	factors associated with elderly abuse.

B.	risk factors affecting mortality in the elderly.

C.	main reasons for chemical dependency in elderly patients.

D.	contributing factors to elderly denial of aging.

65.

Clouding of the lens of the eyes of elderly patients is known as:

A.	conjuctiva.

B.	catecholamine.

C.	conjunctivitis.

D.	cataracts.

66.

Elderly patients are at increased risk for abnormal blood-filled dilation of the walls or blood vessels. This condition is known as:

A.	an aneurysm.

B.	arteriosclerosis.

C.	atherosclerosis.

angina.

67.

In questioning an elderly patient, the best type of question to use is:

A.	closed-ended.

B.	open-ended.

generic.

specific.

68.

The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as:

delusion.

dementia.

paranoia.

delirium.

69.

Any action made by an elderly individual's caregiver that takes advantage of the elderly individual's person, property, or mental state is known as:

A.	felonious assault.

B.	protected custody abuse.

C.	elder abuse.

D.	privacy invasion.

70.

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indications of ____________ elder abuse.

physical.

B.	psychological.

C.	financial.

D.	emotional.

71.

A reduction in the amount of bone mass leading to fractures after minimal trauma is known as:

A.	osteoporosis.

B.	arthritis.

C.	tendinitis.

D.	osteosclerosis.

72.

A widening of the blood vessels causing in a drop in blood pressure and inadequate blood flow to the brain is likely to cause:

dementia.

syncope.

C.	cardiac compromise.

D.	arteriosclerosis.

73.

An interruption of blood flow to the brain that results in fainting is called:

synciput.

B.	synclonus.

C.	syncytioma.

syncope.

74.

An elderly patient who suffers a heart attack without the presence of chest pain is said to have had a:

A.	disassociated attack.

B.	silent attack.

C.	symptomatic attack.

D.	neurologic attack.

75.

Written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should he or she become unable to make decisions is a(n):

A.	general order.

B.	standard of practice.

C.	advance directive.

D.	standard operating procedure.

76.

A disease in which fatty material is deposited and accumulates in the innermost layer of medium- and large-sized arteries is called:

aneurysm.

B.	atherosclerosis.

C.	arteriosclerosis.

D.	vasodilation.

77.

A disease characterized by the hardening and thickening of the arterial walls is called:

aneurysm.

B.	atherosclerosis.

C.	arteriosclerosis.

D.	vasodilation.

78.

The leading causes of death in the elderly include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.	heart disease.

cancer.

stroke.

D.	asthma/COPD.

79.

Which of the following is a common change in the elderly?

A.	Decreased kidney function reduces the elimination of medications.

B.	Saliva and gastric juices increase making it harder to chew and digest.

C.	Reduced water in brain cells results in short-term memory problems.

D.	A reduction in red blood cells results in chronic hypoxia and dehydration.

80.

A 10% reduction of brain weight may increase an elderly individual's risk for:

dementia.

delirium.

C.	head trauma.

stroke.

81.

During the initial assessment of an elderly patient, you determine that his level of consciousness is awake and oriented times two. The person is unaware of the year. You assume this is:

A.	expected and normal.

B.	unexpected and normal.

C.	expected and abnormal.

D.	unexpected and abnormal.

82.

To improve your ability to communicate with an elderly patient, you should:

A.	speak loudly and slowly.

B.	ask as few questions as possible.

C.	have the patient put in dentures or hearing aids.

D.	ask a family member first for accurate history.

83.

The concept of polypharmacy in the elderly describes:

A.	using multiple pharmacies to get their medications.

B.	sharing medications with their spouses.

C.	their being prescribed multiple medications.

D.	changing from commercial medications to home remedies.

84.

The leading cause of trauma in the elderly is:

A.	auto-pedestrian accidents.

falls.

abuse.

suicide.

85.

You are dispatched to the scene of an infant cardiac arrest. En route, you review infant CPR and remember that:

A.	the proper depth of chest compressions is 1 inch to 1 ½ inches.

B.	three fingers should be used to compress the sternum.

C.	you should deliver chest compressions at a rate of greater than 100/min.

D.	chest compressions are delivered with one finger above the intermammary line.

86.

You should deliver chest compressions to an unconscious patient who has no pulse by:

A.	depressing the sternum 2 inches to 2 ½ inches.

B.	delivering compressions over the lower half of the sternum.

C.	compressing quickly and releasing slowly.

D.	placing the heel of one hand directly over the xiphoid process and delivering a firm jab once every second.

87.

In one-rescuer adult CPR, how many ventilations should you give after delivering the appropriate number of chest compressions?

C.	two sets of 2.

88.

In one-rescuer adult CPR, how many chest compressions should you deliver between ventilations?

10.

30.

89.

To deliver the proper number of chest compressions per minute in one-rescuer adult CPR, you will need to compress the patient's chest at a rate of how many times a minute?

60.

80.

over 100.

100.

90.

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant?

60.

70.

C.	at least 100.

120.

91.

What percentage of exhaled oxygen gas concentrations is delivered during rescue breathing?

16.

24.

32.

92.

A discoloration of the skin due to the pooling of blood is called:

A.	rigor mortis.

B.	dependent lividity.

C.	putrefaction.

D.	decomposition.

93.

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:

prone.

supine.

C.	horizontal.

D.	on a firm surface.

94.

In which of the following positions should a breathing, nontrauma patient be placed to aid in airway management?

rolled.

recovery.

C.	restoration.

D.	resuscitation.

95.

Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a cervical spine injury is suspected?

Heimlich.

B.	head tilt.

C.	head tilt-chin lift.

D.	jaw-thrust.

96.

You are for signs of life on an unresponsive patient you discover that there is no movement of air. You should immediately:

A.	call for help.

B.	open the airway.

C.	begin ventilations.

D.	begin chest compressions.

97.

How many seconds of inhalation is considered to be adequate ventilation?

98.

To ventilate your patient using the mouth-to-mask method, you should breathe slowly into his or her mouth for how many seconds?

99.

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or one who is very obese?

A.	back blows.

B.	finger sweeps.

C.	chest thrusts.

D.	abdominal thrusts.

100.

The preferred initial treatment to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in conscious adults and children is:

A.	back blows.

B.	oxygenation.

C.	chest thrusts.

D.	the Heimlich maneuver.

101.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a sudden upper airway obstruction?

cyanosis.

B.	ability to speak.

C.	inability to cough.

D.	grasping the throat.

102.

In two-rescuer child CPR, what is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilations?

5 to 1.

5 to 2.

15 to 1.

15 to 2.

103.

You are arriving to a 64-year-old female patient who was found collapsed and unresponsive. A community first responder states, "I gave her one minute of CPR." Your next step is to:

A.	check for a carotid pulse.

B.	ready the patient for transport.

C.	begin the operation of the AED.

D.	evaluate the effectiveness of the breaths.

104.

Why is it important to be able to identify the xiphoid process on a patient in cardiac arrest?

A.	It will make it easier to place the pads for the AED.

B.	This is where you will place your hands for CPR compressions.

C.	You will use the xiphoid process as a guide for depth of compressions.

D.	You could cause internal damage by doing compressions on the xiphoid process.

105.

Which of the following events can occur in performing chest compressions on a patient in cardiac arrest?

A.	The AED can be used successfully.

B.	The ribs and sternum can be broken.

C.	The patient might become unresponsive.

D.	You will not be able to depress the sternum more than 1 inch.

106.

You and your partner have been performing CPR on a 63-year-old cardiac arrest patient for 7 minutes without resuscitating the patient. You may stop performing CPR on this patient when:

A.	the family says to stop.

B.	a physician says to stop.

C.	law enforcement says to stop.

D.	the pupils begin to constrict.

108.

A child is in cardiac arrest. How many times per minute should chest compressions be performed?

100

60.

80.

D.	at least 100.

109.

The proper depth of chest compressions on a child is how many inches?

A.	1/4 to 1/2.

B.	at least 2 inches

C.	1 1/2 inches

2 inches

110.

What is the best location for chest compressions on a 3-month-old infant?

A.	middle of the sternum.

B.	one finger width above the nipple line.

C.	one finger width below the nipple line.

D.	one finger width above the xiphoid process.

111.

How many times per minute should an infant who is not breathing be ventilated?

14.

16.

18.

20.

112.

The proper depth of compressions on an infant is how many inches?

A.	1/2 to 1 inch

B.	at least 2 inches

C.	1 1/2 inches

2 inches

113.

What is the ratio of ventilations to compressions when you perform 1 person infant CPR?

1 to 3.

2 to 30..

1 to 10.

2 to 15.

114.

Permanent brain damage may occur without oxygen in as little as:

A.	2 minutes.

B.	5 minutes.

C.	10 minutes.

D.	15 minutes.

115.

The primary cause of cardiac arrest in pediatric patients is:

A.	respiratory arrest.

overdose.

trauma.

D.	myocardial infarction.

116.

CPR should NOT be initiated in all of the following situations EXCEPT:

A.	when rigor mortis is present.

B.	the family requests no CPR.

C.	a DNR order is present.

D.	when dependent lividity is found.

117.

A 93-year-old man is unresponsive, breathless, and pulseless. His family states the patient has a DNR order but they cannot find it. The EMT should:

A.	hold CPR and contact medical control for orders.

B.	provide CPR until the family signs a refusal of care.

C.	begin CPR and transport.

D.	withhold CPR until the family produces the DNR order.

118.

The dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid are layers of tissue that enclose the brain and spinal cord. Together, they are called the:

meninges.

B.	spinal cord.

C.	brain stem.

D.	motor nerves.

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