The
topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are
closer toward the midline or center of the body is:
A.
lateral.
B.
medial.
C.
midaxillary.
D.
midclavicular.
2.
Topographically, the term distal means:
A.
near the trunk.
B.
near a point of
reference.
C.
nearer to the free
end of the extremity.
D.
toward the center
of the body.
3.
The
topographic term used to describe the part of the body that is nearer to
the feet is:
A.
deep.
B.
inferior.
C.
internal.
D.
superior.
4.
The
topographic term used to describe the back surface of the body is:
A.
anterior.
B.
exterior.
C.
inferior.
D.
posterior.
5.
The
topographic term used to describe the center line of the body is the:
A.
midline.
B.
midaxillary.
C.
internal line.
D.
convergence point.
6.
Bilateral
fractures of the femur indicate that:
A.
the bone is broken
in two or more pieces.
B.
both femurs are
broken.
C.
both zones of the
femur are broken.
D.
both the superior
and inferior ends of the femur are broken.
8.
The
leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering
the trachea is called the:
A.
uvula.
B.
epiglottis.
C.
laryngopharynx.
D.
cricothyroid
membrane.
10.
The
diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during:
A.
inhalation.
B.
exhalation.
C.
exhumation.
D.
accessory
breathing.
12.
The left
ventricle pumps blood to the:
A.
body.
B.
lungs.
C.
left atrium.
D.
pulmonary artery.
13.
The major
artery that supplies all other vessels with blood is the:
A.
aorta.
B.
carotid.
C.
brachial.
D.
femoral.
14.
The artery
that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the:
A.
dorsalis pedis.
B.
posterior tibia.
C.
anterior tibia.
D.
anterior fibula.
15.
Which of
the following structures are responsible for the exchange of nutrients
and waste in the cells?
A.
venules.
B.
capillaries.
C.
arteries.
D.
arterioles.
16.
Which of
the following vessels carry blood away from the heart?
A.
pulmonary vein.
B.
pulmonary artery.
C.
inferior venae
cavae.
D.
superior venae
cavae.
17.
What fluid
carries the blood cells and nutrients?
A.
plasma.
B.
colloids.
C.
platelets.
D.
red blood cells.
18.
What part
of the blood is essential for the formation of blood clots?
A.
plasma.
B.
colloids.
C.
platelets.
D.
red blood cells.
20.
The system
that is responsible for body movement and upright posture is the:
A.
skeletal system.
B.
nervous system.
C.
muscular system.
D.
musculoskeletal
system.
22.
The spinal
column has how many vertebrae?
A.
24.
B.
28.
C.
33.
D.
36.
23.
The areas
of the spinal column from the top to the bottom are the:
A.
cervical, thoracic,
sacral, lumbar, coccyx.
B.
cervical, thoracic,
lumbar, sacral, coccyx.
C.
cervical, thoracic,
coccyx, lumbar, sacral.
D.
cervical, lumbar,
thoracic, sacral, coccyx.
25.
How many
pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum?
A.
6
B.
8
C.
10
D.
12
27.
What three
bones make up the shoulder girdle?
A.
clavicle, scapula,
humerus.
B.
acromion, clavicle,
scapula.
C.
acromion, scapula,
humerus.
D.
acromion, humerus,
olecranon.
28.
The
central nervous system is composed of the:
A.
brain and spinal
cord.
B.
brain and sensory
nerves.
C.
motor and sensory
nerves.
D.
spinal cord and
sensory nerves.
29.
The
peripheral nervous system is composed of the:
A.
brain and spinal
cord.
B.
brain and sensory
nerves.
C.
motor and sensory
nerves.
D.
spinal cord and
sensory nerves.
30.
What set
of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the
central nervous system?
A.
motor.
B.
cranial.
C.
sensory.
D.
vertebral.
33.
Which of
the following organs is found in only one of the upper quadrants of the
abdomen?
A.
liver.
B.
colon.
C.
stomach.
D.
spleen.
35.
The vocal
cords are located in the:
A.
larynx.
B.
pharynx.
C.
oropharynx.
D.
laryngopharynx.
36.
Together,
the right and left lungs contain how many lobes?
A.
2
B.
3
C.
5
D.
6
37.
The common
passage for both air and food is the:
A.
trachea.
B.
pharynx.
C.
epiglottis.
D.
esophagus.
39.
Food is
prevented from entering the trachea by the:
A.
larynx.
B.
tongue.
C.
pharynx.
D.
epiglottis.
42.
In the
systemic circulatory system, deoxygenated blood from the lower half of
the body is returned to the heart via the:
A.
aorta.
B.
coronary sinus
vein.
C.
inferior vena cava.
D.
superior vena cava.
43.
Hemoglobin
is an iron-binding protein that carries oxygen and carbon dioxide. It is
found in:
A.
plasma.
B.
platelets.
C.
red blood cells.
D.
white blood cells.
44.
The three
basic types of muscles are:
A.
skeletal, smooth,
and striated.
B.
skeletal, smooth,
and cardiac.
C.
ligaments, tendons,
and cardiac.
D.
voluntary,
involuntary, and fascia.
46.
How many
cervical vertebrae are there?
A.
5
B.
6
C.
7
D.
11
47.
Twelve
pairs of ribs attach to what section of the spinal column?
A.
cervical.
B.
lumbar.
C.
sacral.
D.
thoracic.
48.
The bones
of the forearm are called the:
A.
tibia and radius.
B.
humerus and ulna.
C.
radius and ulna.
D.
radius and humerus.
49.
The bones
of the fingers and toes are called the:
A.
carpals.
B.
tarsals.
C.
phalanges.
D.
cuneiforms.
53.
Which of
the following bones protects the front of the knee?
A.
fibula.
B.
patella.
C.
acetabulum.
D.
greater trochanter.
54.
The bones
of the leg between the knee and the ankle are called the:
A.
tibia and fibula.
B.
radius and ulna.
C.
tarsals and
metatarsals.
D.
carpals and
metacarpals.
55.
The only
movable bone in the face is the:
A.
maxilla.
B.
mastoid.
C.
zygoma.
D.
mandible.
56.
The medial
bone of the forearm is called the:
A.
ulna.
B.
tibia.
C.
fibula.
D.
radius.
58.
The part
of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the:
A.
right side
cerebrum.
B.
left side cerebrum.
C.
frontal lobe.
D.
left parietal lobe.
60.
You arrive
on scene for a patient with a single gunshot wound. The entrance to the
wound is in the left lateral chest in line with the middle of the
armpit. The wound is described in which anatomical region.
A.
midaxillary line.
B.
midclavicular line.
C.
distal chest.
D.
dorsal torso.
61.
5-year-old
boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist.
He is thought to have a fracture of the:
A.
proximal forearm.
B.
superior forearm.
C.
dorsal forearm.
D.
distal forearm.
64.
An
intoxicated patient is found face down after passing out. You would
document he was found in what position?
A.
supine.
B.
prone.
C.
shock.
D.
Fowler's.
65.
The shock
position helps to increase blood flow to the brain. It is similar in
function to which other position?
A.
Trendelenburg's.
B.
prone.
C.
Fowler's.
D.
recovery.
68.
The layer
of tissue that lines the inside of the chest cavity is called the:
A.
visceral pleura.
B.
pulmonary pleura.
C.
parietal pleura.
D.
thoracic pleura.
69.
Brain
cells begin to die without oxygen and nutrients in as few as:
A.
1-3 minutes.
B.
4-6 minutes.
C.
8-10 minutes.
D.
10-15 minutes.
70.
Which of
the following accurately describes the child's airway anatomy?
A.
The tongue takes up
less space in the pharynx.
B.
The trachea is
larger, softer, and more flexible.
C.
The nose and mouth
are proportionally larger than an adult's.
D.
The pharynx is
smaller and less deeply curved.
71.
Which of
the following are unique signs of respiratory distress only seen in
children?
A.
irregular breathing
pattern.
B.
seesaw
respirations.
C.
unequal breath
sounds.
D.
unequal chest
expansion.
72.
The
primary control of respirations located in the brain stem is based on:
A.
high levels of
carbon dioxide.
B.
high levels of
oxygen.
C.
low levels of
carbon dioxide.
D.
low levels of
oxygen.
74.
The
electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the:
A.
SA node.
B.
AV node.
C.
bundle of HIS.
D.
Purkinje system.
75.
Which of
the following is considered a central pulse?
A.
temporal.
B.
brachial.
C.
carotid.
D.
posterior tibial.
78.
Poisonous
substances produced during digestion are brought to what organ and
converted to harmless substances?
A.
pancreas.
B.
kidneys.
C.
liver.
D.
rectum.
79.
Which
organ is located in the retroperitoneal space?
A.
gallbladder.
B.
stomach.
C.
kidney.
D.
thymus.
80.
As you
assess a patient's breathing, you should note the:
A.
tidal volume.
B.
strength of
breathing.
C.
rate and quality of
breathing.
D.
height of chest
rise during inspiration.
81.
What skin
color is associated with cyanosis?
A.
pale.
B.
jaundiced.
C.
bluish tint.
D.
reddish.
84.
A normal
pulse should feel:
A.
weak and rapid.
B.
bounding and rapid.
C.
strong and regular.
D.
thready and
regular.
85.
When
taking a patient's blood pressure, the diaphragm of the stethoscope is
normally placed over which artery?
A.
tibial.
B.
radial.
C.
femoral.
D.
brachial.
86.
The
systolic blood pressure is a measurement of:
A.
atrial relaxation.
B.
atrial contraction.
C.
ventricular
relaxation.
D.
ventricular
contraction.
87.
When you
assess the capillary refill of an infant, the return of color to the
tested area should take how many seconds?
A.
less than 1.
B.
less than 2.
C.
more than 2.
D.
more than 5.
88.
When you
inspect a patient's pupils with a flashlight, the pupils should normally
react to the light by:
A.
dilating.
B.
fluttering.
C.
constricting.
D.
not responding.
90.
Systolic
blood pressure is defined as the measurement of the pressure exerted
against the walls of the:
A.
veins while the
heart is at rest.
B.
veins during
contraction of the heart.
C.
arteries while the
heart is at rest.
D.
arteries during
contraction of the heart.
93.
To obtain
a patient's blood pressure by the palpation method, you should:
A.
listen for the
presence of a pulse sound after deflating the blood pressure cuff.
B.
compare the pulses
of the arm and the neck and take an average.
C.
find the brachial
pulse with two fingers and inflate the blood pressure cuff, noting
the measurement when the pulse is gone.
D.
inflate the blood
pressure cuff while monitoring the radial pulse of the arm until the
pulse is gone; then deflate the cuff, noting the measurement when
the pulse returns.
94.
When you
use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you
obtain is the:
A.
pulse pressure.
B.
systolic blood
pressure.
C.
diastolic blood
pressure.
D.
average of the
systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
95.
How do you
assess the respirations of an adult patient?
A.
Count each
inhalation as one breath and each exhalation as one breath, and
multiply by 2.
B.
Ask the patient
what his or her normal respirations are, and then have him or her
breathe normally while you count.
C.
Observe the rise
and fall of the chest, and note the rate of breathing over 30
seconds.
D.
Observe the rise
and fall of the chest, note the rate of breathing in 30 seconds, and
multiply by 2.
96.
In
obtaining a patient's history, the abbreviation SAMPLE is often used to
get the most complete history. SAMPLE is an acronym for:
A.
signs, allergies,
medications, physical exam, last time of occurrence, evidence of
associated problems.
B.
signs, allergies,
medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, events
leading to the injury or illness.
C.
skill, associated
couplets, medical physician, physical exam, last oral intake,
evaluation.
D.
skin color,
associated complaints, medical physician, pertinent past history,
location of the injury, events leading to the injury or illness.
97.
In a
stable patient, vital signs should be reassessed:
A.
whenever the
patient requests an update.
B.
whenever you care
for the patient for over 1 hour.
C.
at least every 15
minutes.
D.
at least every 30
minutes.
99.
Normal
respirations for an adult patient should be between:
A.
6 and 20 breaths
per minute.
B.
6 and 30 breaths
per minute.
C.
12 and 20 breaths
per minute.
D.
12 and 30 breaths
per minute.
107.
Subjective
information gathered during your patient assessment are called:
A.
signs.
B.
symptoms.
C.
complaints.
D.
problems.
109.
The term
"baseline vital signs" is used to describe:
A.
vital signs taken
at the base of the wrist.
B.
the initial set of
vital signs taken.
C.
trending in all
vital signs taken.
D.
the vital signs
taken prior to your assessment.
111.
Bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate of:
A.
more than100 beats
per minute.
B.
fewer than 60 beats
per minute.
C.
more than 150 beats
per minute.
D.
fewer than 100
beats per minute.
112.
Tachycardia is defined as a pulse rate of:
A.
fewer than 100
beats per minute.
B.
more than 150 beats
per minute.
C.
fewer than 60 beats
per minute.
D.
more than 100 beats
per minute.
114.
A blood
pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give:
A.
a false low
systolic and diastolic reading.
B.
a high systolic but
low diastolic reading.
C.
a false high
systolic and diastolic reading.
D.
a low systolic but
high diastolic reading.
READ
THE FOLLOWING BEFORE PRESSING "GRADE/SUBMIT THE TEST"
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