Airway and Ventilations
On-Line Practice Exam 4 -
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publisher other than the one used in class. Therefore some questions may
require some research to answer. Furthermore this exam includes questions
that should have been obtained in an EMT-Basic program. It is recommended
that you take the exam by placing your answers on a sheet of paper then
Click here for "Answer Key Exam 4".
1. Without adequate
airway maintenance and ventilation, the patient can succumb to brain injury
or death in how many minutes?
a. 2-4
minutes.
b. 4-6
minutes.
c. 6-10
minutes.
d. 10-12
minutes.
2. Manual maneuvers
used to open a patient's airway (are):
a.
contraindicated in most patients outside of the emergency department.
b. difficult
to perform for even the most experienced prehospital providers.
c. often
neglected in the prehospital setting.
d. don't
usually work without more extensive airway maintenance.
3. Cartilage that
separates the right and left nasal cavities is the:
a. larynx.
b. epiglottis.
c. inferior
turbinates.
d. septum.
4. All of the
following are pairs of sinuses EXCEPT the:
a.
oropharyngeal sinuses.
b. ethmoid
sinuses.
c. frontal
sinuses.
d. sphenoid
sinuses.
5. Air enters the
nasal cavity through the:
a. esophagus.
b. external
nares.
c. glottic
opening.
d. trachea.
6. How many teeth
are found in the healthy adult?
a. 30
b. 32
c. 34
d. 36
7. The Adam's apple
is made up of the:
a. arytenoid
cartilage.
b. pyriform
fossae.
c. thyroid
cartilage.
d. glottis.
8. All of the
following are components of the lower airway EXCEPT the:
a. larynx.
b. trachea.
c. bronchi.
d. alveoli.
9. All of the
following are parts of the lung that make up the parenchyma, except the:
a. right upper
lobe.
b. right
middle lobe.
c. left upper
lobe.
d. left middle
lobe.
10. An anatomical
difference between adults and children is that in the pediatric patient the:
a. dental
ridge and teeth are harder.
b. larynx lies
more posterior.
c. jaw is
smaller and the tongue is relatively larger.
d. cricoid
cartilage is the widest part of the airway.
11. When the soft
palate is touched it can stimulate a patient's:
a. cough
reflex.
b. vomiting
reflex.
c. gag reflex.
d. swallowing
reflex.
12. The mechanical
process that moves air into and out of the lungs is:
a.
ventilation.
b.
respiration.
c. aspiration.
d.
hyperoxygenation.
13. The respiratory
cycle begins when the lungs have achieved normal expiration and the pressure
inside the thoracic cavity:
a. is lower
than atmospheric pressure.
b. equals
atmospheric pressure.
c. is higher
than atmospheric pressure.
d. is not
affected by atmospheric pressure.
14. The lungs receive
most of their blood supply from:
a. pulmonary
arteries.
b. pulmonary
veins.
c. bronchial
arteries.
d. bronchial
veins.
15. The concentration
of oxygen in the atmosphere is:
a. 78.62%.
b. 20.84%.
c. 0.04%.
d. 0.50%.
16. Which of the
following shows the correct order of the gases that comprise atmospheric air
listed in order from the gas of the highest concentration to the gas of
least concentration?
a. water,
carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen
b. nitrogen,
oxygen, water, carbon dioxide
c. nitrogen,
carbon dioxide, oxygen, water
d. water,
carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen
17. Pulse oximetry
measures which of the following in peripheral tissues?
a. hemoglobin
oxygen saturation
b. hemoglobin
carbon dioxide saturation
c. partial
pressure of oxygen
d. partial
pressure of carbon dioxide
18. Moderate hypoxia
is indicated with a pulse oximeter reading of:
a. 95%-100%
b. 90%-94%
c. 86%-91%
d. 81%-85%
19. When oxygen is
combined with hemoglobin, it is measured as:
a. oxygen
saturation.
b. partial
pressure of oxygen.
c. partial
pressure of carbon dioxide.
d. carbon
dioxide saturation.
20. Most of the carbon
dioxide in the blood is carried as:
a. hemoglobin.
b.
bicarbonate.
c. plasma.
d. corpuscles.
21. When using the
end-tidal carbon dioxide detector as a tool to determine if endotracheal
intubation has been correctly obtained, the absence of carbon dioxide in
exhaled air indicates the endotracheal tube has been:
a. correctly
placed.
b. placed in
the esophagus.
c. placed in
the right mainstem bronchus.
d. placed in
the left mainstem bronchus.
22. The airflow during
a maximum exhalation is the:
a. peak
expiratory flow.
b. tidal
volume.
c. tidal
reserve.
d. functional
residual capacity.
23. Which of the
following can affect oxygen concentrations in the blood?
a. decreased
hemoglobin concentration
b. pulmonary
edema
c.
ventilation/perfusion mismatch
d. all of the
above
24. The hypoxic drive
is regulated by:
a. low PaO2.
b. high PaO2.
c. high oxygen
saturation percentage.
d. low oxygen
saturation percentage.
25. When atelectasis
is present, which gas exchange is taking place?
a. oxygen to
carbon dioxide
b. carbon
dioxide to oxygen
c. oxygen to
nitrogen
d. no gas
exchange is taking place
26. Decreased partial
pressure of oxygen in the blood is called:
a. hypoxia.
b. hypoxic
drive.
c. hypercarbia.
d. hypoxemia.
27. An oxygen
deficiency is called:
a. hypoxia.
b. hypoxic
drive.
c. hypercarbia.
d. hypoxemia.
28. A fine, bubbling
sound heard on inspiration and associated with fluid in the smaller
bronchioles is called:
a. gurgling.
b. snoring.
c. crackles.
d. rhonchi.
29. Progressively
deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower
breathing is called:
a. agonal
respirations.
b. Cheyne-Stokes
respirations.
c. Kussmaul's
respirations.
d. Biot's
respirations.
30. The normal
respiratory rate for an infant is:
a. 20-40
breaths per minute.
b. 40-60
breaths per minute.
c. 60-80
breaths per minute.
d. 80-100
breaths per minute.
31. Control of the
rate of a person's respirations is:
a. voluntary.
b.
involuntary.
c. both
voluntary and involuntary.
d. none of the
above.
32. The major drawback
of mouth-to-mouth ventilations is:
a. potential
exposure of the rescuer to communicable disease.
b. the danger
of rupturing the patient's lung.
c.
noncompliance.
d. inducing of
the gag reflex.
33. A drop in blood
pressure of greater than 10 torr during inspiration is:
a. anoxia.
b. Biot's
respirations.
c. pulsus
paradoxus.
d. central
neurogenic hyperventilation.
34. A high-pitched
noise while inhaling during a partial airway obstruction is:
a. stridor.
b. cough.
c. dyphonia.
d. dyspnea.
35. A musical,
squeaking or whistling sound heard in inspiration and expiration while
auscultating lung fields is called:
a. wheezing.
b. snoring.
c. gurgling.
d. stridor.
36. What is an
indication of complete airway obstruction?
a. the patient
cannot breath
b. the patient
cannot cough
c. the patient
cannot speak
d. all of the
above
37. Which of the
following is the most common cause of airway obstruction?
a. foreign
bodies
b. the tongue
c. trauma
d. laryngeal
spasm
38. Which is the most
commonly aspirated material causing airway obstruction?
a. meat
b. small toys
c. teeth
d. vomitus
39. Asymmetrical chest
wall movement that lessens respiratory efficiency may suggest a:
a.
pneumothorax.
b. partial
airway obstruction.
c. flail
chest.
d. pulmonary
embolism.
40. Which of the
following can mimic poor airway compliance?
a. flail chest
b. upper
airway obstruction
c. pulmonary
embolism
d. laryngeal
spasm
41. The simplest
airway management technique in a patient without suspected cervical spine
injury is:
a.
endotracheal intubation.
b. modified
jaw-thrust maneuver.
c.
head-tilt/chin lift maneuver.
d. Sellick's
maneuver.
42. The airway
management technique to use on a patient with a suspected cervical spine
injury is:
a.
endotracheal intubation.
b. modified
jaw-thrust maneuver.
c.
head-tilt/chin lift maneuver.
d. Sellick's
maneuver.
43. Applying pressure
on the cricoid cartilage to ease endotracheal intubation is called:
a. the
modified jaw-thrust maneuver.
b. the
head-tilt/chin lift maneuver.
c. the
Heimlich maneuver.
d. Sellick's
maneuver.
44. The tool used to
assist the paramedic in removing a foreign object causing a complete airway
obstruction is the:
a. Magill
forceps.
b.
laryngoscope.
c.
endotracheal tube.
d. suction
catheter.
45. The basic
technique used to remove blood, other secretions, or vomit from a patient's
airway is:
a. suctioning.
b. debridement.
c. distention.
d.
compression.
46. To facilitate
suctioning a patient in the field, the suction vacuum should have a flow
rate of _____ when the tube is open.
a. 20 liters
per minute
b. 30 liters
per minute
c. 40 liters
per minute
d. 50 liters
per minute
47. Which of the
following is an indication to suction a patient?
a. to remove
foreign body obstructions
b. to remove
emesis from the airway
c. to
hyperoxygenate the patient prior to intubation
d. to assist a
patient with his cough reflex
48. Another name for a
hard/rigid catheter is:
a. Magill.
b. Yankauer.
c. whistle
tip.
d. Wisconsin.
49. The length of
time for suctioning a patient should be limited to:
a. 40 seconds.
b. 30 seconds.
c. 20 seconds.
d. 10 seconds.
50. A risk associated
with tracheobronchial suctioning is:
a. edema.
b. bleeding.
c. hypoxia.
d. airway
obstruction.
51. The oral and nasal
airways help to establish a patent airway by lifting the base of the:
a. epiglottis.
b. vallecula.
c. tongue.
d. vocal
cords.
52. A complication
associated with ventilating a non-intubated patient in which air is trapped
in the patient's stomach is called:
a. gastric
distention.
b. gag reflex.
c. vomiting.
d. esophageal
obstruction.
53. Advantages of a
nasopharyngeal airway include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. it does not
isolate the trachea.
b. it can be
rapidly inserted and safely placed blindly.
c. it may be
used in the presence of a gag reflex.
d. you may
suction through it.
54. Nasopharyngeal
airways should not be used in the presence of:
a. airway
obstruction.
b. basilar
skull fracture.
c. patients
with a gag reflex.
d. injury to
the oral cavity.
55. Using a
nasopharyngeal airway that is too big can cause:
a.
hyperventilation.
b. gastric
distention.
c. airway
obstruction.
d. the gag
reflex.
56. All of the
following indicate proper placement of a nasopharyngeal airway EXCEPT:
a. absence of
breath sounds on auscultation.
b. chest rise
and fall.
c. feel of
airflow on expiration.
d. clear
breath sounds on auscultation.
57. One disadvantage
of an oropharyngeal airway is that:
a. air can
pass around and through the device.
b. it makes
suctioning the airway easier.
c. it does not
prevent aspiration.
d. it can
cause nosebleeds if inserted too forcefully.
58. Which of the
following is a proper procedure to follow when inserting an oropharyngeal
airway in a patient without suspected cervical spine injury?
a. lubricate
the device before insertion
b. hyperextend
the patient's head and neck
c. hold the
device at the distal end and insert it into the patient's mouth
d. once the
top reaches the level of the soft palate, gently rotate it 90 degrees until
it comes to rest over the tongue
59. Which of the
following indicates improper placement of the oropharyngeal airway?
a. The device
advances out of the mouth during ventilatory effort.
b. Good, equal
breath sounds can be auscultated bilaterally.
c. The chest
rises and falls equally during ventilatory efforts.
d. The tongue
does not occlude the patient's airway.
60. What is the
percentage of oxygen delivered during mouth-to-mouth ventilations?
a. 23%
b. 21%
c. 19%
d. 17%
61. Supplemental
oxygen can be administered through a face mask at a rate of:
a. 6 liters
per minute.
b. 10 liters
per minute.
c. 12 liters
per minute.
d. 15 liters
per minute.
62. When a bag-valve
mask is used with room air, it delivers an oxygen concentration of:
a. 21%.
b. 26%.
c. 40%.
d. 60%.
63. An advantage of
the two-person method of bag-valve-mask ventilation is that it:
a. reduces the
risk of gastric distention.
b. creates a
well-sealed mask.
c. increases
compliance.
d. decreases
the need to hyperoxygenate prior to suctioning.
64. The automatic
transport ventilator is contraindicated for all of the following patients
EXCEPT:
a. an
intubated 4-year-old near drowning victim.
b. an
intubated 17-year-old gun shot victim.
c. an
intubated 34-year-old with adult respiratory distress syndrome.
d. an
intubated 56-year-old in pulmonary edema.
65. A tank containing
liquid oxygen should be stored:
a. on its
side.
b. upright.
c. cylinder
valve side down.
d. in any
manner that is convenient.
66. An oxygen
regulator used to transfer oxygen at high pressures from tank to tank is
called a:
a. low
pressure regulator.
b. high
pressure regulator.
c. therapy
regulator.
d. oxygen
regulator.
67. To calculate how
long the oxygen in a tank will last, divide the __________ by liters per
minute.
a. tank
pressure in psi X 0.28
b. tank volume
c. tank volume
X tank pressure
d. demand
valve setting
68. The maximum flow
rate to be used with a nasal cannula is:
a. 4 liters
per minute.
b. 6 liters
per minute.
c. 10 liters
per minute.
d. 15 liters
per minute.
69. A simple face mask
delivers what percentage of oxygen?
a. 95% to 100%
b. 80% to 90%
c. 60% to 80%
d. 40% to 60%
70. Which oxygen
delivery device delivers the highest concentration of oxygen?
a. nasal
cannula
b. venturi
mask
c. partial
rebreather mask
d.
nonrebreather mask
71. The patient with
COPD benefits from oxygen delivery through a venturi mask because:
a. its oxygen
concentration is controlled more carefully.
b. it is not
used for long periods of time.
c. it is more
comfortable on the patient's face.
d. the high
flow of oxygen it delivers won't affect the patient's hypoxic drive.
72. What is the
highest flow rate on a demand valve device?
a. 15 liters
per minute
b. 20 liters
per minute
c. 30 liters
per minute
d. 40 liters
per minute
73. A patient with a
tracheal stoma typically has increased secretions due to:
a. a decreased
level of consciousness.
b. a less
effective cough.
c. the size of
the stoma.
d. decreased
effectiveness of the immune system.
74. Stomas are used
for breathing by patients who have had a surgical opening cut into the
trachea or who have had surgical removal of the:
a. vallecula.
b. epiglottis.
c. larynx.
d. uvula.
75. When intubating a
stoma site, you should insert the endotracheal tube how far beyond the
distal cuff?
a. 1-2 cm
b. 2-3 cm
c. 3-4 cm
d. 4-5 cm
76. Extreme caution
should be used when suctioning a tracheal stoma in order to avoid:
a. soft tissue
swelling.
b. bleeding.
c. worsening a
cough.
d. dislodging
a mucous plug.
77. When preparing for
a pediatric intubation, it is important to remember that in the pediatric
patient the:
a. tongue is
larger in relation to the oropharynx.
b. the glottic
opening is lower and more posterior in the neck.
c. the vocal
cords slant downward, toward the front of the head.
d. the
narrowest part of the airway is the glottic opening.
78. The reason an
uncuffed endotracheal tube is used in most pediatric patients is:
a. a cuffed
tube can cause vomiting and aspiration.
b. a cuffed
tube is too big to pass through the vocal cords.
c. the cricoid
cartilage forms a suitable cuff.
d. the tissue
of the pharynx can be damaged by the cuff.
79. Because infants
and children have greater vagal tone than adults, you should be prepared to
give what drug to prevent bradycardia?
a. midazolam
b. lidocaine
c. fentanyl
d. atropine
80. All of the
following are disadvantages of using a laryngeal mask airway EXCEPT:
a. it can be
used on a patient who is semiconscious.
b. it cannot
be used on a patient with a gag reflex.
c. it does not
protect from regurgitation.
d. it does not
protect against aspiration.
81. All of the
following are disadvantages of using a pharygno-tracheal lumen airway
EXCEPT:
a. it does not
protect the trachea from aspiration.
b. it cannot
be used on trauma patients.
c. it cannot
be used on pediatric patients.
d. it can only
be passed orally.
82. The pharyngo-tracheal
lumen airway should be removed if the patient:
a. vomits.
b. becomes
tachycardic.
c. regains
consciousness.
d. has poor
compliance.
83. All of the
following are standard equipment for performing an endotracheal intubation
EXCEPT:
a. a
laryngoscope.
b. a suction
device.
c. a 5 cc
syringe.
d. a bite
block.
84. All of the
following are straight laryngoscope blades EXCEPT the:
a. Miller
blade.
b. Wisconsin
blade.
c. Flagg
blade.
d. Mcintosh
blade.
85. The curved
laryngoscope blade is designed to fit into the:
a. uvula.
b. soft
palate.
c. vallecula.
d. epiglottis.
86. The straight
laryngoscope blade is designed to fit under the:
a. uvula.
b. soft
palate.
c. vallecula.
d. epiglottis.
87. Which of the
following endotracheal tubes would you find uncuffed?
a. 4.5 mm
b. 5.0 mm
c. 5.5 mm
d. 6.0 mm
88. Overinflating the
pilot balloon in an endotracheal tube can cause:
a. unequal
breath sounds.
b. return of
the gag reflex.
c. ischemia of
the tracheal wall.
d. damage to
teeth and gums.
89. Improper use of a
stylet with an endotracheal tube may result in:
a. aspiration
of teeth.
b. damage to
tissue.
c. return of
gag reflex.
d. damage to
teeth and gums.
90. All of the
following are indications for endotracheal intubation, except:
a. respiratory
arrest.
b. risk of
aspiration.
c. airway
obstruction.
d. spontaneous
gag reflex.
91. With which of the
following patients should endotracheal intubation not be attempted in the
prehospital setting unless airway failure is imminent?
a.
epiglottitis
b. croup
c. CHF
d. pulmonary
embolism
92. All of the
following drugs can be administered through an endotracheal tube, except:
a. naloxone.
b. lidocaine.
c.
epinephrine.
d. dextrose.
93. Which of the
following can be injured during endotracheal intubation?
a. pyriform
sinus
b. ethmoid
sinus
c. frontal
sinus
d. sphenoid
sinus
94. Limit each attempt
at endotracheal intubation to how many seconds before reoxygenating the
patient?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
95. Which of the
following indicates esophageal intubation?
a. equal
breath sounds bilaterally
b. a pulse
oximetry reading of 95%-100%
c. color
change with colorimetric ETCO2 detector
d. absence of
breath condensation in the endotracheal tube
96. Which of the
following indicates endobronchial intubation?
a. equal
breath sounds bilaterally
b. poor
compliance
c. breath
condensation in the endotracheal tube
d. absence of
gurgling over the epigastrium
97. Distended neck
veins, diminishing unilateral breath sounds, and progressively worsening
compliance are indications of:
a. esophageal
intubation.
b.
endobronchial intubation.
c. tension
pneumothorax.
d.
hemopneumothorax.
98. To visualize the
larynx during endotracheal intubation, place the patient in the:
a. sniffing
position.
b. prone
position.
c. left
lateral recumbent position.
d. right
lateral recumbent position.
99. Which of the
following is the correct order of events after an endotracheal tube has been
properly inserted?
a. Inflate the
cuff with 5-10 cc of air, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, listen
for breath sounds over the epigastrium, secure the tube.
b. Secure the
tube, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium, listen for equal breath
sounds bilaterally, inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air.
c. Inflate the
cuff with 5-10 cc of air, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium,
listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, secure the tube.
d. Inflate the
cuff with 5-10 cc of air, secure the tube, listen for equal breath sounds
bilaterally, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium.
100. An endotracheal
tube with a lighted stylet is useful when intubating:
a. an obese
patient.
b. a trauma
patient.
c. in a
brightly lit room.
d. a patient
in the prone position.
101. The lighted stylet
is placed correctly when you see a light at the:
a. Adam's
apple.
b. vallecula.
c. larynx.
d. tracheal
cartilage.
102. Before attempting
foreign body removal under direct laryngoscopy, you should attempt:
a. needle
cricothyrotomy.
b. the
Heimlich maneuver.
c. open
cricothyrotomy.
d. nasogastric
intubation.
103. An important
landmark for endotracheal intubation is the:
a. arytenoid
cartilage.
b. pyriform
fossae.
c. thyroid
cartilage.
d. glottis.
104. Sellick's maneuver
aids in intubation by:
a. closing the
nasopharynx.
b. opening the
vocal cords.
c. aligning
the trachea.
d. occluding
the esophagus.
105. Scenario: You are
at the scene where a car has crashed into a tree. The single patient is
unresponsive and barely breathing. A star-pattern on the windshield leads
you to suspect the patient's head hit the windshield during the crash. What
method would you attempt to secure this patient's airway.
a. digital
intubation
b.
laryngoscopy
c. rapid
sequence intubation
d.
nasotracheal intubation
106. Which fingers are
used during digital intubation?
a. middle and
ring-finger.
b. ring-finger
and pinky.
c. index and
thumb.
d. middle and
index finger.
107. Advantages of the
Esophageal Tracheal CombiTube include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. insertion
is rapid and easy.
b. it can be
used with pediatric patients.
c. it
significantly diminishes gastric distention and regurgitation.
d. it can be
used on trauma patients.
108. Scenario: You are
called to a scene where the patient is a 64-year-old male with COPD. He is
awake, but with an altered mental status. His wife tells you that he has
been struggling harder and harder to breathe. Which of the following methods
would you use to control his airway?
a. digital
intubation
b.
laryngoscopy
c. rapid
sequence intubation
d.
nasotracheal intubation
109. The proper order to
perform rapid sequence intubation on the patient who is alert is:
a. prepare
equipment, administer sedative, administer neuromuscular blocker, apply
Sellick's maneuver.
b. prepare
equipment, administer sedative, apply Sellick's maneuver, administer
neuromuscular blocker.
c. administer
sedative, apply Sellick's maneuver, prepare equipment, administer
neuromuscular blocker.
d. administer
sedative, prepare equipment, apply Sellick's maneuver, administer
neuromuscular blocker.
110. A risk associated
with rapid sequence intubation for a patient who has recently had something
to eat or drink is:
a. vomiting
and aspiration.
b. apnea.
c.
fasciculations.
d. decreased
mental status.
111. Which condition
would preclude the use of succinylcholine for rapid sequence intubation?
a. elevated
sodium level
b. decreased
sodium level
c. elevated
potassium level
d. decreased
potassium level
112. Succinylcholine is
the preferred neuromuscular agent for rapid sequence intubation because of
its:
a. lack of
fasciculations.
b. rapid onset
and long duration.
c. rapid onset
and short duration.
d. long onset
of mechanism of action.
113. One disadvantage
of using Versed as a sedative prior to a paralytic in rapid sequence
intubation is it:
a. suppresses
cortisol.
b. increases
intracranial pressure.
c. causes
hypotension.
d. causes
bronchospasm.
114. Potential
indications for nasotracheal intubation include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. suspected
basilar skull fractures.
b. possible
spinal injury.
c. significant
angioedema.
d. obesity.
115. Blind nasotracheal
intubation requires that the patient is:
a. apneic.
b. breathing.
c. conscious.
d.
unconscious.
116. The most common
indication for a surgical cricothyrotomy is:
a. foreign
body obstruction.
b. rapid
sequence intubation.
c. massive
facial or neck trauma.
d. angioedema.
117. The site for
surgical airway techniques is the:
a. cricoid
cartilage.
b. thyroid
cartilage.
c.
cricothyroid membrane.
d. intrinsic
ligament.
118. A surgical airway
technique that involves inserting a 14-gauge IV needle into the trachea at
the cricoid membrane is called:
a. open
cricothryrotomy.
b. needle
cricothyrotomy.
c.
tracheostomy.
d.
endotracheal intubation.
119. To perform a needle
cricothyrotomy in a patient who does not have a suspected cervical spine
injury, the patient should be placed:
a. supine with
head and neck hyperextended.
b. supine with
head and neck in neutral position.
c. in the
lateral recumbent position with head and neck hyperextended.
d. in the
lateral recumbent position with head and neck in neutral position.
120. When performing
needle cricothryrotomy, the IV needle should be advanced into the
cricothyroid membrane no more than:
a. 1 cm.
b. 2 cm.
c. 3 cm.
d. 4 cm.
121. If blood is noted
in the needle on evaluation for proper placement during a needle
cricothyrotomy, you should:
a. advance the
needle another centimeter and advance the catheter.
b. inject air
into the needle and advance the catheter.
c. hold the
needle steady and advance the catheter.
d. reevaluate
needle placement.
122. When using a
transtracheal jet ventilation set-up, how many breaths per minute should be
provided to the patient to insure adequate ventilation?
a. 12
b. 18
c. 20
d. 24
123. All of the
following are indications of proper endotracheal tube placement EXCEPT:
a. absence of
breath sounds over the epigastrium.
b. presence of
condensation inside the endotracheal tube.
c. poor
compliance with mechanical ventilation.
d. absence of
phonation once the tube is placed.
124. To secure the
endotracheal tube once it is in the trachea, use:
a. tie-downs
or tape.
b. surgical
tubing.
c. rolled
gauze.
d. roller
bandaging.
125. Field extubation
can be performed if the patient:
a. is under
the influence of sedatives.
b. bites the
endotracheal tube during unconsciousness.
c. is awake
and able to maintain his own airway.
d. becomes
combative and starts to pull out the tube.
