On-Line Practice Exam 7 - This exam is from another publisher other than the one used in class.  Therefore some questions may require some research to answer.  Furthermore this exam includes questions that should have been obtained in an EMT-Basic program.  It is recommended that you take the exam by placing your answers on a sheet of paper then Click here for "Answer Key Exam 7"

1.       ________ is the key link in the chain that results in the best possible patient outcome.

          a.   Coordination

          b.   Communication

          c.   Confrontation

          d.   Conceptualization

2.       Why is it necessary to communicate effectively with other responders?

          a.   to coordinate and implement the treatment plan.

          b.   to exchange career information.

          c.   to summon EMS through a PSAP.

          d.   to get feedback from others.

3.       Using terminology widely accepted by the emergency services and medical community when giving a report to emergency department personnel is important because:

          a.   semantics enhance effective communication.

          b.   "10-codes" are meaningless to physicians.

          c.   verbal communication is the preferred medium.

          d.   the receiver must be able to decode the message.

4.       The patient care form is all of the following EXCEPT:

          a.   a legal record of the incident.

          b.   an indicator of professionalism.

          c.   a public record.

          d.   part of the patient's permanent medical record.

5.       What is necessary to afford clear communications among all agencies within a system?

          a.   semantic training.

          b.   system-specific terminology.

          c.   reliable equipment in the communications network.

          d.   ultrahigh frequency radios.

6.       The number of times per minute a radio wave oscillates is its:

          a.   radio band.

          b.   semantic.

          c.   amplitude.

          d.   frequency.

7.       The first part of the EMS response to an incident is:

          a.   prearrival instructions.

          b.   discussion with medical direction.

          c.   call coordination.

          d.   detection and citizen access.

 8.       The acronym PSAP stands for:

          a.   prehospital safety and prevention.

          b.   public safety access point.

          c.   public safety agency paramedics.

          d.   paramedic standard answering point.

9.       Why is it important to use terminology that is widely accepted by the medical and emergency services communities?

          a.   Physicians have more education than paramedics do.

          b.   It is required by regulations.

          c.   Unfamiliar terms may be meaningless.

          d.   Dispatchers need to follow all conversations.

10.     Without proper terminology and verbal communications skills, the receiver will be unable to ________ the message.

          a.   receive

          b.   decode

          c.   resend

          d.   confirm

11.     ________ factors can impede communications through hardware.

          a.   Semantic

          b.   Terminology

          c.   Technical

          d.   Frequency

12.     Specialized terms for radio use enhance communications by:

          a.   lengthening airtime and transmitting thoughts quickly.

          b.   rationing airtime and transmitting thoughts reasonably.

          c.   shortening airtime and transmitting thoughts quickly.

          d.   shortening airtime and transmitting thoughts reasonably.

13.     The prehospital care report (PCR) is a written record of events that includes administrative and ________ information.

          a.   location

          b.   medical

          c.   agency

          d.   crew

14.     When used improperly, ________ can impede interpretation of a prehospital care form by other professionals.

          a.   terminology

          b.   radio frequency

          c.   technology

          d.   professionalism

15.     In terms of written communications, a neat and complete PCR is a good indicator of:

          a.   aptitude.

          b.   tenacity.

          c.   compensation.

          d.   professionalism.

16.     When preparing a written report, you must remain aware that it is a(n) ________ and a part of your patient's permanent medical record.

          a.   handwritten document

          b.   informal document

          c.   legal record

          d.   reasonable facsimile

17.     Medical audits, research, and policy changes can improve patient care through information collected from:

          a.   police radio communications.

          b.   terminology revisions.

          c.   call coordination.

          d.   prehospital care reports.

18.     Prehospital care reports are used by:

(1) hospital staff.

(2) agency administrators.

(3) insurance departments.

(4) lawyers.

          a.   1 and 3 only.

          b.   1, 2, and 3.

          c.   1, 2, and 4.

          d.   all of the above.

19.     When dialing 911, callers are first routed to the ________, who then sends the call to ________.

          a.   PSAP, EMT-P

          b.   EMD, PAAP

          c.   PSAP, EMD

          d.   EMS-C, PSAP

20.     The main duties of the dispatcher after sending the responders and providing prearrival instructions are:

          a.   discussion with medical direction.

          b.   support and coordination.

          c.   transfer communications.

          d.   detection and access.

21.     Multiplex systems transmit:

          a.   voice and data simultaneously.

          b.   simultaneously in two ways.

          c.   on the same frequency as they receive.

          d.   through digital means.

22.     A ________ system uses a computer to route transmissions to the first available frequency.

          a.   simplex

          b.   duplex

          c.   digital

          d.   trunked

23.     ________ communications are condensed and require a decoder to translate.

          a.   Analog

          b.   Telephone

          c.   Cellular

          d.   Digital

24.     Cellular telephone systems use ________ to transmit communications.

          a.   regional radio base stations

          b.   computers

          c.   digital technology

          d.   multiple radio frequencies

25.     A _____ reads printed information and transmits it to another machine.

          a.   computer

          b.   facsimile machine

          c.   trunking machine

          d.   touch pad

26.     A disadvantage of computer-based reporting systems is the:

          a.   rigidity of some programs.

          b.   need to enter retrospective data.

          c.   absence of a permanent record.

          d.   absence of confidentiality.

 27.     The ________ is the public's first contact with the EMS system and plays a crucial role in every EMS response.

          a.   emergency medical technician

          b.   paramedic

          c.   emergency medical dispatcher

          d.   first responder

28.     The federal agency that controls and regulates nongovernmental communications is the:

          a.   FCC.

          b.   FAA.

          c.   FAC.

          d.   FCA.

29.     Regulation of communications at the federal level includes all of the following EXCEPT:

          a.   allocating radio frequencies.

          b.   establishing technical standards.

          c.   licensing technical personnel.

          d.   establishing terminology.

30.     What does the dispatcher use to interrogate distressed callers?

          a.   A set of medically approved questions.

          b.   Loud and authoritative language.

          c.   Only verbal communications skills.

          d.   Intuition and interpretation.

31.     Scenario: The emergency medical dispatcher has just finished interrogating a caller. The next step would be for her to:

          a.   send a first responder engine company and paramedics.

          b.   call the patient's insurance company for preapproval.

          c.   send police, fire, and EMS agencies to the call.

          d.   follow established guidelines to determine the appropriate level of response.

32.     In addition to gathering the incident location, the dispatcher should also obtain the ________ from the caller.

          a.   call-back number

          b.   patient's insurance information

          c.   past medical history

          d.   caller's past use of 911

 33.     Without formal transfer of care to the receiving hospital, paramedics could be charged with:

          a.   abuse.

          b.   neglect.

          c.   abandonment.

          d.   malpractice.

34.     The verbal report to the receiving hospital should always include vital information, chief complaint, and:

          a.   personal physician information.

          b.   EMS unit status.

          c.   next of kin name and telephone.

          d.   treatments rendered.

35.     One of the first bits of information to be transmitted to the base physician is the:

          a.   estimated time of arrival to the hospital.

          b.   unit and provider information.

          c.   treatments already rendered.

          d.   request for specific orders.

36.     How do reports to the base physician differ for trauma and medical patients?

          a.   Medical reports emphasize history; trauma reports emphasize injuries and exam findings.

          b.   It is less important to include ETA for medical patients.

          c.   Only trauma patients require a description of the scene.

          d.   Medical reports describe a chief complaint while trauma reports do not.

37.     In the basic model of communications, after the sender develops a message, the next immediate step is the:

          a.   sender sends the message.

          b.   receiver receives the message.

          c.   sender encodes the message.

          d.   receiver decodes the message.

38.     The process of exchanging information between individuals is defined as:

          a.   encoding.

          b.   communication.

          c.   feedback.

          d.   sending-decoding.

 39.     Immediate repetition of each transmission received during radio communications is known as the:

          a.   echo procedure.

          b.   verbal report.

          c.   standard format.

          d.   trunking system.

40.     The final step in the communications process is:

          a.   decoding.

          b.   feedback.

          c.   encoding.

          d.   receiving.

41.     Scenario: You are giving a report to the base physician. After stating the patient's age, sex, and weight, you should next:

          a.   give the ETA to the hospital.

          b.   request specific orders.

          c.   relay treatments already rendered.

          d.   give the patient's chief complaint.

42.     Your prehospital care report's accuracy is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:

          a.   proper spelling.

          b.   approved abbreviations.

          c.   paramedic opinion.

          d.   proper acronyms.

43.     The only truly factual record of the events on an EMS call is the:

          a.   communications center report.

          b.   emergency department chart.

          c.   prehospital care report.

          d.   medical control report.

44.     The prehospital care report should document all of the following EXCEPT:

          a.   treatments provided.

          b.   subjective opinions.

          c.   pertinent negatives.

          d.   objective observations.

45.     Use of prehospital care reports for quality improvement is an example of their ________ use.

          a.   administrative

          b.   legal

          c.   medical

          d.   patient care

 46.     An essential component of good documentation is the appropriate use of:

          a.   medical metaphors.

          b.   subjective opinions.

          c.   administrative research.

          d.   medical terminology.

47.     An example of medical terminology is:

          a.   belly.

          b.   chest.

          c.   thorax.

          d.   jaw bone.

48.     Scenario: You are completing your PCR and cannot remember the correct spelling of a medical term. You should:

          a.   use plain English instead.

          b.   attempt to spell the word, even if it is wrong.

          c.   cross out the sentence and indicate an error.

          d.   make up an abbreviation for the word.

49.     ________ allow you to increase the amount of information you can quickly and efficiently write on your PCR.

          a.   Acronyms and abbreviations

          b.   Medical terminology

          c.   Time stamps

          d.   Pertinent negatives

50.     The abbreviation "Hgb" stands for:

          a.   millimeters of mercury.

          b.   height.

          c.   hemoglobin.

          d.   head gunshot blow.

51.     Why do abbreviations and acronyms pose potential interpretation problems and possible confusion?

          a.   Nurses are not allowed to use them.

          b.   They are specific to EMS.

          c.   They are not universally accepted.

          d.   They can have multiple meanings.

 52.     The times ________ are considered the official times of the incident.

          a.   on your watch

          b.   from the communications center

          c.   on the ambulance clock

          d.   on the PCR

53.     The elapsed time from when a unit is dispatched until it arrives on scene is the ________ time.

          a.   response

          b.   dispatch

          c.   on-scene

          d.   priority

54.     Why is it important for billing companies to have complete PCRs?

          a.   They also perform quality assurance on the charts.

          b.   It is required by law.

          c.   They frequently need a great deal of information to process claims.

          d.   Physician reviewers need the information.

55.     Many paramedics find it useful to carry a ________ to aid them with documentation.

          a.   pocket-sized medical dictionary

          b.   pocket-sized thesaurus

          c.   copy of previous charts

          d.   quality assurance policy

56.     Which of the following statements is inappropriate for a prehospital care report?

          a.   The patient had trouble walking.

          b.   The patient had trouble standing.

          c.   The patient stated "I feel fine."

          d.   The patient was very drunk.

57.     Writing false or malicious words intended to damage a person's character is called:

          a.   jargon

          b.   slander

          c.   libel

          d.   misrepresentation

58.     Language used by a particular group or profession is known as ________ and can be confusing if included on a PCR.

          a.   jargon

          b.   palaver

          c.   newspeak

          d.   lexicon

59.     The subjective narrative includes information that is elicited:

          a.   through palpation.

          b.   by vital signs monitoring.

          c.   during field diagnosis formulation.

          d.   during history taking.

60.     Patient and bystander quotes belong in the ________ section.

          a.   objective narrative

          b.   assessment/management plan

          c.   subjective narrative

          d.   quotation

61.     The paramedic's general impression is documented in the:

          a.   objective narrative.

          b.   assessment/management plan.

          c.   subjective narrative.

          d.   quotation section.

62.     The objective narrative portion of documentation contains ________ findings.

          a.   current health status

          b.   physical exam

          c.   history of present illness

          d.   chief complaint

63.     The ________ narrative approach usually focuses only on the system(s) involved in the current illness or injury.

          a.   head-to-toe

          b.   body systems

          c.   toe-to-head

          d.   focused exam

64.     In the assessment/management section of the narrative, the paramedic should record the ________, which is the paramedic's interpretation of the patient's problem.

          a.   chief complaint

          b.   patient complaints

          c.   field diagnosis

          d.   subjective opinion

 65.     In the following narrative, the chief complaint is:

The pt. complained of CP x 2 days prior to calling EMS pt. denies SOB. Vitals BP 90/50, 40, labored with retractions. Treated with O2 and atropine. Upon arrival, the pt. felt better.

          a.   chest pain.

          b.   shortness of breath.

          c.   chest pain and shortness of breath.

          d.   hypotension.

66.     In the following narrative, the patient's heart rate is:

The pt. complained of CP x 2 days prior to calling EMS and is now also c/o SOB. Vitals BP 90/50, 40, labored with retractions. Treated with O2 and atropine. Upon arrival, the pt. felt better.

          a.   90.

          b.   40.

          c.   50.

          d.   unable to be determined.

67.     In the following narrative, what is the problem with the treatment that is documented?

The pt. complained of CP x 2 days prior to calling EMS and is now also c/o SOB. Vitals BP 90/50, 40, labored with retractions. Treated with O2 and atropine. Upon arrival, the pt. felt better.

          a.   No dosages are stated.

          b.   The patient should have been given dopamine.

          c.   The patient needed a fluid bolus.

          d.   There is no problem with this portion of the documentation.

68.     What is the correct abbreviation for treatment with the drug potassium in the following example?

"Pt. is a 53 y/o male with pain to the upper thoracks and neck 2ø to past history. Pt. has a history of a heart attack and takes k-, HTZC, and asperin."

          a.   k-.

          b.   K+.

          c.   HTZC.

          d.   2ø.

69.     Confidentiality of a patient's prehospital care report is:

          a.   contingent upon citizenship.

          b.   an unrealistic expectation.

          c.   the patient's legal right.

          d.   the responsibility of the patient.

 70.     You are allowed to share the information contained in patient charts with all of the following EXCEPT:

          a.   medical professionals providing continuing care.

          b.   other paramedics not on the call.

          c.   third-party billing companies.

          d.   law enforcement officials.

 71.     Inaccurate or incomplete reports can affect patient care for ________ after the ambulance call ends.

          a.   minutes

          b.   hours

          c.   days

          d.   all of the above

72.     Who can be held responsible if poor prehospital documentation results in inappropriate care?

          a.   The patient.

          b.   The physician.

          c.   The writer of the document.

          d.   The paramedic agency.

73.     Missing information, inaccurate data, and illegible documentation all give the impression of a(n):

          a.   critically life-threatening situation.

          b.   incompetent provider.

          c.   practiced paramedic.

          d.   busy tour of duty.

74.     Should a legal case be brought against you, your best defense in court is usually:

          a.   a complete and thorough PCR.

          b.   your immediate recollection of events.

          c.   your partner's supporting testimony.

          d.   the dispatch records.

75.     Careful, thorough documentation ________ frivolous lawsuits.

          a.   encourages

          b.   enables

          c.   bolsters

          d.   discourages

76.     When your patient refuses care and transportation even though you feel it is necessary, the patient is refusing:

          a.   with informed consent (WIC).

          b.   against medical advice (AMA).

          c.   absent medical authority (AMA).

          d.   against best judgment (ABJ).

77.     Why do patient refusals warrant more thorough documentation than the typical EMS call?

          a.   There is more time available before the next assignment.

          b.   The patient is usually not competent.

          c.   The potential for abandonment charges is tremendous.

          d.   There are additional witnesses that must be quoted.

78.     The risks of ________ are even greater than those of patient refusals.

          a.   incompetent refusals

          b.   refusals AMA

          c.   denying transport

          d.   transporting minors

79.     One common pattern for organizing a narrative report is identified by the mnemonic:

          a.   CHART.

          b.   DOCUMENT.

          c.   RUN-FORM.

          d.   PCR-GO.

80.     The format that uses a chronological account from the time of arrival on scene to the time of transfer of care is known as:

          a.   objective-subjective.

          b.   SOAP.

          c.   call incident.

          d.   patient management.

81.     The call incident approach for narrative-writing emphasizes all of the following EXCEPT:

          a.   absolute chronological order.

          b.   mechanism of injury.

          c.   surrounding circumstances.

          d.   how the incident occurred.

82.     When using direct patient statements, you should:

          a.   subjectively interpret and record them.

          b.   identify the quote with quotation marks.

          c.   have the patient write them on the PCR.

          d.   attempt to tape record them.

 83.     Many systems use ________ to quickly record vital patient information in mass casualty incidents.

          a.   prehospital care forms

          b.   patient care reports

          c.   triage tags

          d.   documen-tags

84.     ________ are documents containing vital information, affixed to the patient during large-scale incidents with multiple patients.

          a.   vit-info tags

          b.   LSI forms

          c.   PCRs

          d.   triage tags

85.     All of the following aspects of documentation applies to computerized report writing EXCEPT:

          a.   Use of medical terminology and abbreviations.

          b.   Completeness and accuracy of the report.

          c.   Having a structured narrative.

          d.   Subjecitve paramedic comments.

86.     Pertinent clinical information should be documented in the:

          a.   clinical narrative.

          b.   subjective narrative.

          c.   objective narrative.

          d.   treatment section.

87.     The negative findings of interest in patient assessment and documentation are known as:

          a.   positive negatives.

          b.   pertinent negatives.

          c.   normal negatives.

          d.   significant positives.

88.     Scenario: Your patient is complaining of respiratory distress. In ruling out congestive heart failure, the absence of swollen ankles would be a(n):

          a.   irrelevant presentation.

          b.   significant positive.

          c.   presenting symptom.

          d.   pertinent negative.

89.     Seeking out and recording pertinent negatives demonstrates the:

          a.   thoroughness of your examination.

          b.   thoughtfulness of your care.

          c.   routine nature of documentation.

          d.   seriousness of the illness.

90.     What does the abbreviation "2ø" stand for in, "Pt. is a 53 y/o male with pain to the upper thoracks and neck 2ø to past history. Pt. has a history of a heart attack and takes k-, HTZC, and asperin"?

          a.   Twenty.

          b.   Secondary.

          c.   Two-oh.

          d.   Two degrees.

91.     An addition or supplement to an original report is called a(n):

          a.   addendum.

          b.   attachment.

          c.   appendix.

          d.   annex.

92.     Paramedics should ________ try to hide errors in charting.

          a.   always

          b.   never

          c.   sometimes, depending on the situation

          d.   thoughtfully

93.     ________ can make changes and additions to the original chart.

          a.   The original author's partner

          b.   The agency director

          c.   The medical direction physician

          d.   The original author

94.     ________ should read and review the PCR before you submit it as complete.

          a.   No one but you

          b.   No one but you and your partner

          c.   No one but you, your partner, and the patient

          d.   Everyone involved in the call

95.     Why should the PCR be completed immediately after the call?

          a.   The information is fresh in your mind.

          b.   The receiving facility demands it.

          c.   The medical control physician must sign it.

          d.   You need to get back in service.

 96.     What is the most important reason for NOT attempting to complete the PCR during the ride to the hospital?

          a.   The ride is bumpy and the chart will be illegible.

          b.   You need to communicate with the medical control physician.

          c.   Your time is better spent performing ongoing assessments.

          d.   There is an increased chance that an error will be made.

97.     A well-written prehospital care report is:

(1) accurate.

(2) legible.

(3) unaltered.

(4) professional.

          a.   1 and 2 only.

          b.   1, 2, and 4.

          c.   all of the above.

          d.   none of the above.

98.     The ultimate responsibility for documentation belongs to the:

          a.   medical control physician.

          b.   paramedic writing the PCR.

          c.   receiving nurse.

          d.   agency's administration.

99.     The best method for completing the narrative section of the PCR is:

          a.   SOAP.

          b.   patient management.

          c.   a combination of methods.

          d.   CHART.

100.   You respond to a call and the police and fire departments are on the scene, as well as a physician. You should include mention of ________ in your PCR documentation.

          a.   all resources

          b.   the police department only

          c.   the fire department only