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Medical Legal, Ethics, Ambulance Safety/Ops On-Line Practice Exam 1 - This exam is from another publisher other than the one used in class. Therefore some questions may require some research to answer. Furthermore this exam includes questions that should have been obtained in an EMT-Basic program. It is recommended that you take the exam by placing your answers on a sheet of paper then Click here for "Answer Key". 1. The highest level of prehospital care provider is: a. EMT-I. b. nurse practitioner. c. physician's assistant. d. paramedic. 2. Because the emergency scene is ever-changing, the paramedic must be: a. flexible. b. controlling. c. patient. d. self-centered. 3. Proper behavior between health care professionals is largely a matter of: a. morality. b. ethics. c. contractual relations. d. etiquette. 4. To practice, paramedics must be approved not only by a state or provincial agency but also by: a. local authorities. b. a federal bureau. c. the EMS system's medical director. d. a professional organization. 5. One of the aims of paramedic continuing education programs is to maintain: a. enrollment in health insurance programs. b. review and practice of little-used skills. c. networking opportunities. d. morale. 6. The primary concern of the paramedic is: a. the integrity of the unit. b. the emergency patient. c. following system protocols. d. the orders of the medical director. 7. Many traditional EMS treatments and practices have been abandoned or refined as a result of: a. lawsuits. b. research. c. court orders. d. legislation. 8. Safety inspections, accident prevention programs, medical screenings, and vaccination and immunization programs are some of the responsibilities of paramedics working in: a. sports medicine. b. neonatal intensive care programs. c. ACLS. d. industrial medicine. 9. Which of the following is NOT a physical benefit of achieving acceptable physical fitness? a. decreased blood pressure b. increased oxygen-carrying capacity c. decreased resting heart rate d. decreased metabolism 10. Benefits associated with physical fitness include all of the following EXCEPT: a. enhanced quality of life. b. improved self-image. c. enhanced anxiety levels. d. maintenance of sound motor skills. 11. The number of major food groups is: a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 12. As part of a healthy diet to control weight, you should: a. eat low-calorie snacks. b. eat one "fast food" meal a day. c. cut back on fluids. d. reduce the "serving size" on a food label by half. 13. To build cardiovascular endurance, exercise to raise your pulse to its target heart rate at least how many times a week? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 14. Biological cycles that occur approximately every 24 hours are called: a. cartesian rhythms. b. spenserian rhythms. c. mendelian rhythms. d. circadian rhythms. 15. One of the proper principles of lifting is to: a. position the load close to your body. b. pull, rather than push when possible. c. hold your breath during the lift. d. bend over the load from the waist. 16. One of the keys to defusing a potentially hostile situation is: a. assertion of your authority. b. effective communication. c. maintaining a closed stance. d. moving into the personal space of bystanders. 17. Which members of an EMS ambulance crew should use seat belts? a. only those seated in the front b. only those riding in the back c. all crew members, front and back d. none, because the requirements of medical care take priority 18. A major responsibility when operating an emergency vehicle is to show due regard for the safety of: a. the patient. b. the paramedic him- or herself. c. the EMS crew members. d. others, that is, the public in general. 19. Which of the following is appropriate PPE when treating a suspected TB patient? a. surgical mask b. HEPA respirator c. nonrebreather mask d. venturi mask 20. Which of the following can be an effective way of ending an addiction to smoking? a. replacement therapy b. aversion therapy c. behavior modification d. all of the above 21. Into which of the following categories of warning signs of stress do suspiciousness, excessive humor, and crying spells fall? a. behavioral b. cognitive c. emotional d. physical 22. Which of the following is NOT a component of critical incident stress management? a. demobilization b. deferral c. defusing d. CISD 23. In what stage of the critical incident stress management process is a short, informal meeting that provides a chance for crews to vent their feeling about an incident held? a. demobilization b. deferral c. defusing d. CISD 24. At what age do children begin to understand the irreversibility of death? a. 3 to 6 years b. 6 to 9 years c. 9 to 12 years d. 12 to 18 years 25. At what age are children likely to believe that those who die are too weak, slow, or stupid? a. 3 to 6 years b. 6 to 9 years c. 9 to 12 years d. 12 to 18 years 26. Which of the following should paramedics use with every patient? a. gloves b. mask and protective eyewear c. mask and gown d. a and b 27. Scenario: You have transferred a patient to ER personnel. The long spine board on which you transported her came in direct contact with her unbroken skin. How would you clean the board? a. wash it with soap and water b. disinfect it with a solution of 1 part bleach to 100 parts of water c. sterilize it with an EPA-approved solution d. discard it 28. The process by which an agency or association grants recognition to an individual who has met its qualifications is: a. certification. b. licensure. c. registration. d. reciprocity. 29. The process by which a governmental agency grants permission to engage in a given occupation to an applicant who has attained the degree of competency required to ensure the public's protection is: a. certification. b. licensure. c. registration. d. reciprocity. 30. The process of entering one's name and essential information within a particular record is: a. certification. b. licensure. c. registration. d. reciprocity. 31. An occupation in which the practitioners have a competence in a specialized body of knowledge or skills that has been recognized by some organization or agency is a: a. trade. b. craft. c. vocation. d. profession. 32. EMS systems can improve the quality of their service and paramedics can improve their knowledge and skills through the evaluation of the quality of performance conducted by others of equal rank and skills that is known as: a. tenure tracking. b. debriefing. c. peer review. d. discovery. 33. The established policies and procedures of an EMS system that provide a standardized approach to common patient problems and a consistent level of medical care are known as: a. standing orders. b. protocols. c. ethics. d. codes. 34. The publication that first focused attention on the problem of emergency medical services was: a. "A Leadership Guide to Quality Improvement for Emergency Medical Services Systems." b. "Injury in America: A Continuing Public Health Problem." c. "Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society." d. "KKK-A-1822." 35. The group that serves as a major tool for reciprocity, easing the process through which paramedics become recertified as they move from state to state, is the: a. National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians. b. National Association of EMS Physicians. c. National Council of State EMS Training Coordinators. d. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. 36. Which of the following is an EMS-trained First Responder NOT permitted to do? a. assist in childbirth b. perform CPR c. perform endotracheal intubation d. perform spinal stabilization 37. The process by which an agency in one state grants automatic certification or licensing to a paramedic who is certified or licensed by an agency in another state is: a. reciprocity. b. immunity. c. professional courtesy. d. refraction. 38. Direct and immediate access to medical consultation for the paramedic and the use of telemetry are two of the benefits of: a. on-line medical direction. b. a tiered response system. c. off-line medical direction. d. the incident command system. 39. The medical policies, procedures, and practices that have been set up in advance of calls by a system physician are all elements of: a. on-line medical direction. b. a tiered response system. c. off-line medical direction. d. the incident command system. 40. EMS systems develop standardized approaches to common patient problems and medical care around the four "Ts" of emergency care. Which of the following is NOT one of the four "Ts"? a. transport b. training c. triage d. transfer 41. Which of the following are likely subjects of protocols? a. when to use air transport vs. ground transport b. which procedures can only be done with direct orders from medical direction c. how to handle DNR orders d. all of the above 42. Paramedics carry out their tasks in the prehospital setting as designated agents of: a. the EMS system's personnel director. b. the head of the facility to which the patient is transported. c. the EMS system's CEO. d. the EMS system's medical director. 43. A physician not affiliated with the EMS system who takes part in patient care with system paramedics at an emergency scene is referred to as a(n): a. intervener physician. b. intrusive physician. c. Good Samaritan physician. d. altruistic physician. 44. The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration has set guidelines for quality improvement in EMS. Which of the following is NOT a component of those guidelines? a. financing b. leadership c. information and analysis d. strategic quality planning 45. The program designed to refine and improve an EMS system with a special emphasis on customer satisfaction is: a. QA. b. QPI. c. CQI. d. PDQ. 46. One element of EMS quality improvement requires following rigorous rules of evidence before a new medication, process, or procedure is adopted. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for rules of evidence? a. There must be a theoretical basis for the change. b. The change must be clinically important. c. The cost of the change should not be a factor when considering it. d. There must be ample scientific human research to support the idea. 47. One of the key ways most paramedics can play a significant part in research to improve EMS systems is through: a. serving as subjects in scientific testing. b. conducting fund raising drives to facilitate research. c. seeking out volunteer subjects for trials. d. performing thorough data collection. 48. The first component in starting a research project is: a. collecting raw data. b. getting approval for patient-consent procedures. c. identifying the problem and stating a hypothesis. d. outlining the logistics affecting the research. 49. The results of a research study written for publication in a medical journal are usually subjected to: a. peer review. b. Internet posting. c. legal analysis. d. corporate review. 50. The type of ambulance that has a forward cab with an integral body and a passageway from the driver's compartment to the patient's compartment is: a. Type I. b. Type II. c. Type III. d. Type IV. 51. The DOT's National Standard Curriculum for paramedics prescribes that course content should cover three learning domains. Which of the following is NOT one of those domains? a. cognitive b. intuitive c. affective d. psychomotor 52. A professional paramedic is responsible for acting in a professional manner: a. when on duty. b. when in contact with a patient. c. when in contact with a patient and hospital personnel. d. when on or off duty. 53. Self-confidence, inner strength, ability to communicate, and willingness to make a decision are all elements of the paramedic professional attribute of: a. leadership. b. integrity. c. empathy. d. respect. 54. The use of continuing education programs is one way a paramedic can: a. avoid lawsuits. b. achieve intervener status. c. maintain certification. d. be classified Level II. 55. Making lists and keeping a personal calendar are two ways in which the paramedic can demonstrate the professional attribute of: a. careful delivery of service. b. communication skills. c. teamwork. d. time management skills. 56. Defending patients, protecting them, and in general acting in their best interests are all examples of the professional attribute of: a. patient advocacy. b. integrity. c. leadership. d. empathy. 57. A paramedic's participation in "prudent heart living" campaigns and seat-belt awareness and child safety-seat programs are examples of his/her: a. community involvement. b. ethical behavior. c. integrity. d. time management. 58. A way for paramedics to determine appropriate injury prevention programs for a community is the use of: a. a tiered response. b. telemetry. c. a trunking system. d. injury risk surveys. 59. When considering the addition of a new EMS service or enhancement of an existing one, paramedics should be sure to include a role for: a. nurses. b. intervener physicians. c. community members. d. attorneys. 60. Which of the following is NOT one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities? a. response b. rehabilitation c. treatment and management d. preparation 61. Which of the following is one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities? a. crowd control b. reconstruction c. disposition and transfer d. public relations 62. During the scene size-up, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is: a. decontaminating the unit. b. assessing the patient's responsiveness. c. identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness. d. anticipating risks based on dispatch information. 63. During the patient assessment, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is: a. decontaminating the unit. b. determining the patient's responsiveness. c. identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness. d. anticipating risks based on dispatch information. 64. During the response, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is: a. decontaminating the unit. b. assessing the patient's responsiveness. c. identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness. d. anticipating risks based on dispatch information. 65. During the return to service, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is: a. decontaminating the unit. b. assessing the patient's responsiveness. c. identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness. d. anticipating risks based on dispatch information. 66. The appropriate receiving hospital for a patient suffering multi-system trauma would be a: a. Level I facility. b. Level II facility. c. Level III facility. d. Level IV facility. 67. Which one of the following is NOT one of the paramedic's responsibilities during the patient assessment? a. physical examination b. patient history c. patient transfer d. ongoing assessment 68. At the scene of an emergency, the paramedic has responsibility for the safety of: a. him- or herself. b. him- or herself and the crew. c. him- or herself, the crew, and the patient. d. him- or herself, the crew, the patient, and the bystanders. 69. The most frequent causes of injuries in children younger than 6 years old are: a. burns. b. MVCs. c. bicycle incidents. d. falls. 70. The largest number of preventable injuries in persons over 75 are the result of: a. burns. b. MVCs. c. drug reactions. d. falls. 71. The policies adopted by many managed-care organizations and HMOs that have led to increased calls to EMS involve: a. immunizations. b. early discharges. c. prenatal clinics. d. elder-care clinics. 72. Which of the following factors is a key indicator of potentially poor health in newborns? a. low birth weight b. systolic blood pressure of 60 to 90 c. heart rate of 100 to 180 d. respiratory rate of 30 to 6 73. If a paramedic suspects a pregnant patient may be having problems with the pregnancy, he should refer her to: a. the local emergency room. b. a prenatal clinic. c. a day care center. d. a family counseling center. 74. Programs that focus on keeping injuries from ever occurring are examples of: a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. quaternary prevention. 75. Medical care after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring is referred to as: a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. quaternary prevention. 76. On a response to a call, paramedics can help patients and onlookers decrease chances of future emergency calls through the use of: a. the PCR. b. a teachable moment. c. a conference call with medical direction. d. a CISD. 77. Items that paramedics can document on patient forms to help implement future injury prevention programs include: a. scene conditions at the time of EMS arrival. b. risks that EMS personnel had to overcome. c. use or non-use of protective devices. d. all of the above. 78. The duties of a paramedic set by statutes and regulations are: a. ethical responsibilities. b. moral responsibilities. c. legal responsibilities. d. res ipsa loquitur responsibilities. 79. Promptly responding to both the physical and emotional needs of every patient is an example of a paramedic's: a. ethical responsibilities. b. moral responsibilities. c. legal responsibilities. d. res ipsa loquitur responsibilities. 80. Performing systematic patient assessments, providing appropriate medical care, and maintaining accurate and complete documentation offer the paramedic the best protection from: a. liability. b. statutory laws. c. scope of practice. d. administrative laws. 81. How many primary sources of law are there in the United States? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 82. "Case" law or "judge-made" law are other names for: a. common law. b. legislative law. c. constitutional law. d. administrative law. 83. The U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration's development of requirements to be followed at hazardous materials emergencies is an example of: a. common law. b. legislative law. c. constitutional law. d. administrative law. 84. In a lawsuit in which a paramedic has been charged with negligence, the paramedic is referred to as the: a. plaintiff. b. deponent. c. suspect. d. defendant. 85. Most of the laws affecting EMS and paramedics are: a. state laws. b. municipal laws. c. federal laws. d. regional laws. 86. The granting of permission, usually by a governmental body, for a qualified individual to engage in a particular profession or occupation is: a. reciprocation. b. certification. c. enlistment. d. licensure. 87. Expressed, implied, and involuntary are the three types of _______ a paramedic may obtain before treating a patient. a. release b. contact c. consent d. guidance 88. A paramedic who transports a patient without his consent or other legal authority may be subject to charges of: a. defamation. b. false imprisonment. c. libel. d. insouciance. 89. Good Samaritan laws may provide EMS workers with some protection from legal liability, or: a. immunity. b. deposition. c. autonomy. d. emancipation. 90. Legal responsibility for an action is known as: a. certification. b. feasance. c. misfeasance. d. liability. 91. Injuring a person's name or character through malicious spoken statements is: a. slander. b. libel. c. deposition. d. perjury. 92. An action or inaction by a paramedic that causes or worsens damages suffered by a patient is referred to as the __________ of the damages. a. agency b. prime cause c. precipitator d. proximate cause 93. The duties and skills paramedics are allowed and expected to perform in carrying out their jobs are referred to as the: a. paramedic code. b. professional standard. c. scope of practice. d. standard of care. 94. A civil wrong committed by one individual against another is a: a. lawsuit. b. tort. c. deposition. d. discovery. 95. The scope of practice relates to the ______ of the paramedic's duties and skills, while the standard of care relates to the _______ of the paramedic's duties and skills. a. quality/difficulty b. range/quality c. range/direction d. quality/range 96. When a paramedic is ordered by the medical direction physician to administer a treatment he reasonably believes will be harmful to the patient, the paramedic should: a. carry out the ordered treatment but note his objection on the PCR. b. question the physician, but carry out the order if the physician insists. c. question the physician, refuse to carry out the order if the physician insists he do so, and document the incident. d. contact a superior official in the EMS system and request a second opinion. 97. The four elements needed to sustain a charge of negligence against a paramedic are: a. duty to act; breach of that duty; actual damages; proximate cause. b. duty to act; actual damages; malicious intent; significant harm. c. breach of the duty to act; violation of EMS codes; proximate cause; failure to document the action. d. breach of the duty to act; actual damages; malicious intent; reckless disregard of results. 98. Scenario: A patient who has no other signs and symptoms of medical problems and has been treated by paramedics for a sprained wrist and is being transported in a non-emergency mode suffers a stroke while in the ambulance. What do you think would be the likely outcome of a negligence lawsuit brought by the patient? a. The suit would succeed because four elements of negligence were present. b. The suit would fail because the plaintiff could not demonstrate that the paramedics' actions were the proximate cause of the stroke. c. The suit would fail because the plaintiff failed to demonstrate malice on the part of the plaintiffs. d. The suit would succeed because the paramedics had a duty to act and the patient suffered actual damages. 99. Scenario: A patient is involved in a car crash. When the paramedics arrive, he complains of neck pain but refuses to let the paramedics immobilize his spine. The paramedics explain the risks of refusing treatment and have the patient sign a release-from-liability form. The patient later sues, charging negligence on the part of the paramedics. What do you think the likely outcome of this case would be? a. a victory for the patient because the paramedics committed a breach of duty b. a victory for the patient because the paramedics had a duty to act and did not c. a victory for the patient because the paramedics' inaction was the proximate cause of the patient's injury d. a victory for the paramedics because of the patient's contributory negligenc 100. A paramedic may be responsible for the negligence of EMT-Bs and EMT-Is under his supervision under the: a. res ipsa loquitur clause. b. elastic clause. c. ex parte Milligan decision. d. "borrowed servant" doctrine. 101. Which of the following is NOT one of the common elements of Good Samaritan laws offering protection to a person who assists at a scene of a medical emergency? a. The person has acted in good faith. b. The person was not grossly negligent. c. The person did not accept payment for his services. d. The person attempted to contact qualified emergency personnel. 102. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for releasing confidential patient information? a. The patient's other medical care providers have a need to know. b. A local newspaper cites the First Amendment right of its readers to the information. c. A judge signs a court order requesting the information. d. A private insurance company needs the information for billing purposes. 103. The type of consent that must be obtained from every conscious, competent, adult patient before a paramedic can begin treatment is: a. willing. b. voluntary. c. informed. d. implied. 104. When a paramedic treats an unconscious patient, the provision of treatment is based on what type of consent? a. willing b. voluntary c. informed d. implied 105. When a court orders that a prisoner receive treatment that the prisoner does not want, the treatment is based on what type of consent? a. conditional b. involuntary c. hostile d. consensual 106. Scenario: You are called to a scene where a conscious, competent adult patient, in your opinion, needs treatment and transport. You tell the patient about the nature of her illness. You go on to describe the treatment you'd recommend and the benefits and possible risks of the treatment. There are no alternative treatments available for this condition. Can you obtain informed consent to treat from this patient at this point? a. Yes, you have given enough information. b. No, you must tell the patient of the dangers of refusing treatment and transport. c. No, you must provide a likely prognosis. d. No, you must request that the patient first sign a consent form. 107. If a paramedic leaves a patient unattended, even for a short time, he or she is exposed to charges of: a. misfeasance. b. abandonment. c. desertion. d. nonfeasance 108. Once a competent adult has given informed consent to treatment and treatment begins, he or she: a. cannot withdraw consent. b. should be treated under the policy of implied consent. c. should be treated under the policy of involuntary consent. d. is allowed to withdraw consent if the situation has been fully explained. 109. An act that unlawfully places a person in apprehension of immediate bodily harm without his consent is: a. assault. b. battery. c. mayhem. d. aggravation. 110. Straps, jackets, and blankets are all examples of: a. personal protective equipment. b. BSI gear. c. rescue gear. d. restraining devices. 111. DNR orders, durable powers of attorney, and living wills are forms of: a. depositions. b. torts. c. advance directives. d. interrogatories. 112. A legal document that allows a person to specify the kinds of medical treatment he wishes to receive should the need arise is a(n): a. DNR order. b. durable power of attorney. c. deposition. d. living will. 113. A legal document that indicates to medical personnel which, if any, life-sustaining measures should be taken when the patient's heart and respiratory functions have ceased is a(n): a. DNR order. b. durable power of attorney. c. deposition. d. living will. 114. Paramedics may provide circulatory support through IV fluids and CPR and ventilatory support via endotracheal tube to a clinically dead patient who is: a. the subject of a criminal investigation. b. the defendant in a criminal trial. c. an organ donor. d. a member of certain religious groups. 115. If a patient care report is found to be incomplete or inaccurate, the paramedic should: a. file a complete new report with the correct information. b. add a dated and signed written addendum to the original report. c. erase or white out the incorrect information and write in the correct facts. d. cross out the incorrect information so that it cannot be read and add the correct information to the bottom of the report, dating it and signing it. 116. The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are: a. morals. b. prerequisites. c. ethics. d. codes. 117. Social, religious, or personal standards of right and wrong are: a. morals. b. prerequisites. c. ethics. d. codes. 118. The approach to making ethical decisions that holds that each person must decide how to behave and whatever decision that person makes is okay is known as: a. moral positivism. b. the deontological method. c. consequentialism. d. ethical relativism. 119. The approach to making ethical decisions that holds that actions can be judged as good or bad only after we know the consequences of those actions is known as: a. moral positivism. b. the deontological method. c. consequentialism. d. ethical relativism. 120. The most important question a paramedic should ask him- or herself when faced with an ethical dilemma is: a. "What do system protocols say?" b. "What legal liability will I face as a result of this action?" c. "What is in the patient's best interest?" d. "Have I consulted with medical direction?" 121. The four fundamental principles or values used in resolving problems in bioethics today include all of the following EXCEPT: a. autonomy. b. beneficence. c. egalitarianism. d. nonmaleficence. 122. The right of a competent person to determine what happens to his or her own body is one example of the principle of: a. license. b. autonomy. c. libertarianism. d. latitude. 123. The obligation of a paramedic to treat all patients fairly is an example of the principle of: a. beneficence. b. libertarianism. c. sovereignty. d. justice. 124. When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you would be willing to undergo a procedure or action if you were in the patient's place is known as the: a. interpersonal justifiability test. b. universalizability test. c. Good Samaritan test. d. impartiality test. 125. If you receive a copy of a valid DNR order after you have begun resuscitation attempts, you are ethically obligated to: a. continue resuscitation until ordered to stop by medical direction. b. continue resuscitation attempts until the patient is transported to an emergency department. c. check the patient's breathing and pulse before ceasing resuscitation efforts. d. cease resuscitation efforts. |
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